Converting into polar coordinates for integration

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The discussion focuses on converting a double integral into polar coordinates, specifically the integral of ln(x² + y² + 1) over a circular region. Initial attempts included expressing the integrand and limits in polar form, with some confusion about the integration limits for r. Participants emphasized the importance of visualizing the region of integration, confirming that it corresponds to a unit circle. The correct limits for r are established as 0 to 1, and for θ as 0 to 2π, leading to the final integral formulation. Drawing a graph of the region was highlighted as a crucial step for clarity in the conversion process.
VinnyCee
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Another problem that I cannot figure out. Convert the follorwing into polar coordinates:

\int_{-1}^{1} \int_{-\sqrt{1 - y^2}}^{\sqrt{1 - y^2}} ln\left(x^2 + y^2 + 1\right) dx\;dy

I did this so far:

ln\left(x^2 + y^2 + 1\right) = ln\left(r^2 + 1\right)

\sqrt{1 - y^2} = \sqrt{1 - r^2 \sin^2 \theta}

Now what do I do?

Is this possibly right?

\int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{-\sqrt{1 - r^2 \sin^2 \theta}}^{\sqrt{1 - r^2 \sin^2 \theta}} ln\left(r^2 + 1\right) dr\;d\theta
 
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Trig identities, what does 1-sin^2(\theta) [/tex] equal?
 
Better yet,

x^2+y^2 = r^2
with r = 1,
x^2+y^2 = 1
x^2 = 1-y^2

x = sqrt(1-y^2)
 
If what whozum said isn't clear to you, try drawing a graph of the region you're integrating over. Also, remember that the area element for a polar integral is

dA=rdrd\theta
 
Is this it?

Including the dA = r\;dr\;d\theta, is this integral the right conversion?

\int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{-\sqrt{1 - r^2 \sin^2 \theta}}^{\sqrt{1 - r^2 \sin^2 \theta}} r\;ln\left(r^2 + 1\right) dr\;d\theta
 
The limits of r simplify, other than that your right. Look at our hints above.
 
Cool , but how does the 1-sin^2(\theta) = \cos^2\left(\theta\right) help when I have these limits of integration for r?

\sqrt{1 - r^2 \sin^2 \theta}}

It does not factor right?

Attached is a graph.
 

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VinnyCee said:
\int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{-\sqrt{1 - r^2 \sin^2 \theta}}^{\sqrt{1 - r^2 \sin^2 \theta}} r\;ln\left(r^2 + 1\right) dr\;d\theta

Does it make sense to have "r" in the limit of an integral over r?
 
It does factor, that's my point. Read what I said above clearly, sketch the domain. It will be clear what your limits for R are.
 
  • #10
Let's try this?

x = \sqrt{1 - y^2}
r\;\cos\theta = \sqrt{1 - r^2\;\sin^2\theta}

Then solve for r?
 
  • #11
Like this?

r^2\;\cos^2\theta = 1 - r^2\;\sin^2\theta

r^2\;\left(\cos^2\theta + \sin^2\theta\right) = 1

r^2 = 1

r limits are then from 0 to 1?

The right integral?

\int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{1} r\;ln\left(r^2 + 1\right) dr\;d\theta
 
  • #12
Correct, though it might be -1 to 1, spacetiger will give you the final ok.
 
  • #13
The point of all the comments was : DRAW A PICTURE!
y= \sqrt{1- x^2} and y=-\sqrt{1- x^2} both are the same as x^2= 1- y^2 or x^2+ y^2= 1, the unit circle. Since x ranges from -1 to 1, the region of integration is simply the unit circle. To cover that, \theta ranges from 0 to 2\pi and r from 0 to 1.
 

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