Could someone me im & desperate

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around two statements related to sequences and series, specifically focusing on the behavior of terms in relation to convergence. The subject area includes analysis, particularly infinite series and their properties.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the convergence of series and the behavior of sequences defined by terms a_n. There are attempts to provide proofs or counterexamples, with some participants suggesting specific forms for a_n, such as 1/(n^2), and discussing the relevance of monotonicity and boundedness.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with various participants offering insights and questioning each other's reasoning. Some guidance has been shared regarding the nature of sequences and the conditions under which certain properties hold, but there is no explicit consensus on the correctness of the statements being analyzed.

Contextual Notes

Participants express varying levels of familiarity with the topic, indicating a range of backgrounds in mathematical analysis. There are mentions of homework constraints and the need for proofs or counterexamples, which may influence the direction of the discussion.

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could someone please help me I am urgent & desperate

Homework Statement



True or False, give proof or counterexample
(1) If a_n \geq 0 for all n and \sum a_n converges then na_n \rightarrow 0 as n \rightarrow \infty.
(2) if a_n \geq 0 for all n and \sum a_n converges, then n(a_n-a_{n-1}) \rightarrrow 0 as n \rightarrow \infty.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I thought i had it solved by setting a_n to 1/(n^2)
 
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mynameisfunk said:

Homework Statement



True or False, give proof or counterexample
(1) If a_n \geq 0 for all n and \sum a_n converges then na_n \rightarrow 0 as n \rightarrow \infty.
(2) if a_n \geq 0 for all n and \sum a_n converges, then n(a_n-a_{n-1}) \rightarrrow 0 as n \rightarrow \infty.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I thought i had it solved by setting a_n to 1/(n^2)

I don't have much knowledge on infinite series from an analysis point of view. What I have is a limited knowledge from first year engineering calculus so don't take my solution for gold. However, I believe the reasoning is sound. Since you are "desperate" hopefully this will suffice.

a_n < \frac{\epsilon}{n} for every n > n_0 since \epsilon >0 and the harmonic series diverges.


Thus

na_n < \epsilon for n > n_0 . That completes the proof.

The second one is similar since the sequence is cauchy.

EDIT

So both statements are true.
 
Last edited:


mynameisfunk said:

Homework Statement



True or False, give proof or counterexample
(1) If a_n \geq 0 for all n and \sum a_n converges then na_n \rightarrow 0 as n \rightarrow \infty.
(2) if a_n \geq 0 for all n and \sum a_n converges, then n(a_n-a_{n-1}) \rightarrrow 0 as n \rightarrow \infty.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I thought i had it solved by setting a_n to 1/(n^2)

I would think about alternating series.
 
Dick said:
I would think about alternating series.
Isn't a_n >= 0 .
 


╔(σ_σ)╝ said:
Isn't a_n >= 0 .

True. I missed that. Then think about series with LOTS of zero terms.
 
Last edited:


Prove the contrapositive. Since a_n\ge 0 for all n, so is na_n. If na_n does NOT go to 0, there must be some a_0> 0 such that na_n> a_0. That means that a_n> a_0/n. But the harmonic series \sum 1/n <b>diverges</b>. That leads to a contradiction.
 


HallsofIvy said:
Prove the contrapositive. Since a_n\ge 0 for all n, so is na_n. If na_n does NOT go to 0, there must be some a_0> 0 such that na_n> a_0. That means that a_n> a_0/n. But the harmonic series \sum 1/n <b>diverges</b>. That leads to a contradiction.
<br /> <br /> That's not true. n*a_n doesn't have to be bounded away from zero. It just has to "NOT go to 0". Those are two different things.
 
Dick said:
That's not true. n*a_n doesn't have to be bounded away from zero. It just has to "NOT go to 0". Those are two different things.

There is a theorem and states that of a_n does not go to 0 then a_n is eventually bounded away from 0. If not a_n would be in every epsilon neighbourhood of 0. :-$. I am confused !
 


For part a), it isn't too difficult to prove if the a_n are monotonically decreasing, then n a_n \rightarrow 0, so you can prove that a sub-sequence of n a_n converges to 0, but without the monotonicity I don't know...
 
  • #10


JG89 said:
For part a), it isn't too difficult to prove if the a_n are monotonically decreasing, then n a_n \rightarrow 0, so you can prove that a sub-sequence of n a_n converges to 0, but without the monotonicity I don't know...

Right! If a_n=1/n if n is even and a_n=0 if n is odd then n*a_n does not converge to zero. Of course, in this example the series a_n doesn't converge. But it's not hard to fix it so a_n does converge. Put more 0's in! Just making the odd ones zero isn't enough.
 
Last edited:
  • #11


Good idea Dick. I've spent too much time trying to prove it correct :redface:
 
  • #12


Interesting enough, I had a very similar question (well, part i), not ii) ) in my Analysis midterm that was due Wednesday. I believe I used the Cauchy-Condensation Test for i), and made some argument about na_n being bounded by 2^k a_2^k, and since the latter went to zero, so did na_n.
 

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