Counting Surjective Maps from a Finite Set to Itself

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around counting the number of surjective maps from a finite set S = {1,2,3,...,n} to itself. Participants are exploring the implications of surjectivity and the relationship between surjective and injective mappings in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to reconcile the difference between their understanding of surjective maps and the book's answer of n!. Others question whether a non-injective mapping can still be surjective in a finite context, leading to discussions about the necessity of one-to-one mappings for surjectivity.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants clarifying their understanding of surjective mappings and questioning assumptions about injectivity. There is acknowledgment of the relationship between the properties of the mappings and the finite nature of the set S.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the definitions and implications of surjective and injective mappings, particularly in the context of finite sets. The discussion highlights the importance of these definitions in determining the number of valid mappings.

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Homework Statement



Let S = {1,2,3,...,n}

How many surjective maps are there from S to S?

Homework Equations



n/a

The Attempt at a Solution



The book's answer is n!

However, I thought that total number of surjective maps = n^n because 1-1 isn't required. Where am I wrong?
 
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This is understandable as a surjective map from itself to itself, and this is essential just the set S being rearranged, so the answer will be n!.

Mat
 
1-1 is implicitly required, because each element of the domain can only map to one element of the range - so to map to every element of the range you'll need a 1-1 mapping.
 
battousai said:

Homework Statement



Let S = {1,2,3,...,n}

How many surjective maps are there from S to S?The book's answer is n!

However, I thought that total number of surjective maps = n^n because 1-1 isn't required. Where am I wrong?

But since S is finite, if the map wasn't 1-1 it couldn't be onto, could it?
 
Arianwen said:
1-1 is implicitly required, because each element of the domain can only map to one element of the range - so to map to every element of the range you'll need a 1-1 mapping.

LCKurtz said:
But since S is finite, if the map wasn't 1-1 it couldn't be onto, could it?

Got it. Thanks.
 

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