Covariance function iif Moving Average process

AI Thread Summary
Two ARMA(p,q) processes with different autoregressive and moving average polynomials may or may not have different covariance functions, as indicated by the covariance function formula involving the coefficients ψ_j. The discussion highlights the challenge of demonstrating that the coefficients of the covariance functions coincide due to their non-linear relationships. A participant requests a practical example of ARMA processes, suggesting the theoretical nature of the topic may be difficult to grasp. Another contributor posits that if two ARMA processes share the same covariance function, they likely differ only in phase, implying a delayed relationship in their impulse responses. Understanding these nuances is crucial for applying ARMA processes effectively in time series analysis.
Pere Callahan
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Hi,

While teaching myself Time Series Analysis and ARMA processes in particular, I came across the question, whether two ARMA(p,q) processes
<br /> \varphi(B)X_t=\theta(B)Z_t \qquad\qquad \tilde \varphi(B)\tilde X_t=\tilde \theta(B)\tilde Z_t\<br />
with different autoregressive and/or moving average polynomials would necessarily have different covariance functions.

I know that the covariance function is given by
<br /> \gamma_X(n)=\sum_{j\geq 0}{\psi_j\psi_{j+|n|}}<br />
where
<br /> \sum_{j\geq 0}{\psi_j z^j}=\psi(z)=\frac{\theta(z)}{\varphi(z)}<br />

Equating the covariance of X_t and \tilde X_t at lags n=0,1,... gives and infinite number of relations between \psi_j and \tilde \psi_j. I was trying to use these relations to show that these coefficients actually coincide but since they are not linear there seems to be no easy inversion scheme available.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Pere
 
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Hi Pere,
I was trying to understand the covariance function I came across your posting. I have been working in Fiber Optics Sensing. Could you please give me and practical example of "ARMA processes"? It looks to me very abstract.

Tnx David
 
I find the notation a little hard to follow and am not completely sure what is being asked but I would think that if two ARMA processes had the same covariance function then they probably only differ in phase and therefore the impulse response of one ARMA process should be a delayed version of the other.
 
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...

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