Hi, I'm a high-school student, so it would be nice if someone could answer this question without a huge amount of terminology. I heard that recently at CERN at the BASE experiment, the magnetic moment of an antiproton (to nine places is the exact same as the magnetic moment of a proton..) I was wondering if there are any hypotheses on why this is; do antiparticles and particles behave differently at all? Are there any theories as to why there is baryonic asymmetry? And I have endeavored to consult more recently published sources (have been fruitless), apart from a few contemporary articles here and there. In one of the articles, I’m slightly confused with “All of our observations find a complete symmetry between matter and antimatter, which is why the universe should not actually exist,” says Christian Smorra, a physicist at CERN’s Baryon–Antibaryon Symmetry Experiment (BASE) Does CPT asymmetry really have this implication to the formation of our universe? I'm slightly confused with the entire concept of Baryonic Asymmetry and the scientific implications this has. Thanks so much!