brotherbobby
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- TL;DR
- In rotational motion, ##\boxed{\vec v = \vec\omega\times\vec r}##, irrespective of whether the angular velocity ##\vec\omega## is constant or not (I hope I am correct in saying this). However, the curl of velocity vector, ##\mathbf{\vec\nabla\times\vec v=2\vec\omega}## comes out only to be true if the angular velocity of the rotating body is ##\vec\omega## constant. Is this true? I show the details below.
Question : Clearly, from my derivation, the angular velocity ##\vec\omega_0## is constant. Does it have to be? In which case, I am mistaken in what I have shown. Can it not be that the curl of the velocity vector at a given time ##t## equals twice the angular velocity at that time : ##\vec\nabla\times\vec v(t)=2\vec\omega(t)##?