Damped Driven Harmonic Oscillator

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the method of solving the damped-driven harmonic oscillator, specifically focusing on the representation of complex numbers and their implications in the context of differential equations.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the representation of complex constants in terms of polar coordinates and question the reasoning behind rewriting complex numbers in a specific form. There is also discussion about the relationship between trigonometric functions and complex numbers, particularly in the context of solving for angles.

Discussion Status

The conversation is active, with participants providing insights into the representation of complex numbers and suggesting methods to visualize them through Argand diagrams. Some participants express clarity on the concepts discussed, indicating productive engagement with the material.

Contextual Notes

There are references to external resources and prior questions posed in other forums, indicating a broader context of inquiry. The discussion includes elements of trigonometry and complex analysis, which may suggest assumptions about participants' familiarity with these topics.

AbigailM
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Just have a few questions regarding the method of solving the damped-driven harmonic oscillator.

Once we have rewritten the differential equation in terms of z and it's derivatives, we try a solution [itex]z(t) = Ce^{i \omega t}[/itex]. When we sub in z and it's derivatives we then rewrite the complex constant C as [itex]Ae^{-i \delta}[/itex]. My book says that we can do this for any complex number. Why is this?

When we solve for A and sub that into [itex]C=Ae^{-i \delta}[/itex] we find
[itex]f_{0}e^{i \delta}=A(\omega_{0}^{2} - \omega^{2} +2i \beta \omega)[/itex].
My book says we can then rewrite [itex]\delta[/itex] as [itex]\delta=tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2\beta\omega}{\omega_{0}^{2}-\omega^{2}}\right)[/itex]. Could someone please explain this? The right triangle explanation is confusing me.

Thank you all.
 
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I asked a question about this on another forum. I never got an answer, but I know the answer involves taking the laplace transform...
 
we can write any complex number in the form z = re^ig
thus they have just written that complex number in a convenient form for them.
that g (which i am using as my argument for the exponent) is just the angle in the polar representation of a complex number. thus it can be calculated from trigonometry if we know the adjacent and opposite sides of the triangle. this is where the arctan thing comes in.

Do you know how to draw Argand Diagrams? if so, do that for every complex number you see in the derivation and hopefully your trig training will kick in and help you.

hope that helps mate.
 
AbigailM said:
When we sub in z and it's derivatives we then rewrite the complex constant C as [itex]Ae^{-i \delta}[/itex]. My book says that we can do this for any complex number. Why is this?
Do you know about the trigonometric representation of complex numbers and Euler's formula?
For you case, it will be:
[itex]e^{-i \delta}=cos\delta - i sin\delta[/itex]
You can use this to solve your equation and find δ.
 
Awesome that makes sense, I think I'm clear on now. Thank you all for the help!
 

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