Definite integration and stuff

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certainly said:
No the leibniz integral rule is:-
$$\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}f(x,t)\ dt=\int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\ dt+f(b(x),x)\frac{\partial b}{\partial x}-f(a(x),x)\frac{\partial a}{\partial x}$$
 
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Raghav Gupta said:
Isn't Leibniz rule
$$ \frac{d}{dx} \int_{g(x)}^{h(x)} f(t) = f(h(x))h'(x) - f(g(x)) g'(x) $$ ?
So it should be
$$ \frac{d}{dx} \int_0^x e^{-t} f(x-t) = e^{-x}f(0) ? $$ as second term would be zero because differentiation of a constant which is the lower limit is zero

No. It should be exactly what I wrote in #22.
 
$$-f(a(x),x)\frac{\partial a}{\partial x}$$
That last term is not visible in post 25 , that is what I am talking about.
I had to quote to see.
 
certainly said:
It's visible here, @Ray Vickson is it not visible to you too...
I think I am using a mobile device and you desktop.
 
Raghav Gupta said:
I think I am using a mobile device and you desktop.

I have found that on a mobile device, a long LaTeX expression might not display properly. Some of it can run off the right side of the screen, and the device does not start a new line for it. It will start a new line for pure text, but not on a typeset LaTeX/TeX expression.
 
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Raghav Gupta said:
Isn't Leibniz rule
$$ \frac{d}{dx} \int_{g(x)}^{h(x)} f(t) = f(h(x))h'(x) - f(g(x)) g'(x) $$ ?
So it should be
$$ \frac{d}{dx} \int_0^x e^{-t} f(x-t) = e^{-x}f(0) ? $$ as second term would be zero because differentiation of a constant which is the lower limit is zero

Your fundamental mistake is to treat x as a constant when you are differentiating by x. The definite integral will depend on x not just as a limit of the integral but also in the value of the integrand.
 
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certainly said:
No the leibniz integral rule is:-
$$\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}f(x,t)\ dt=\int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\ dt+f(b(x),x)\frac{\partial b}{\partial x}-f(a(x),x)\frac{\partial a}{\partial x}$$
Problems arising for me.
Getting first term in R.H.S
$$\int_0^x e^{-t} f'(x-t)$$ second term 0 and third term also 0 as δa/δx is 0.
 
Raghav Gupta said:
Problems arising for me.
Getting first term in R.H.S
∫x0e−tf′(x−t)
\int_0^x e^{-t} f'(x-t) second term 0 and third term also 0 as δa/δx is 0.
i'm going to call the function to be integrated ##g(x,t)## (i.e ##f## in the equation you quoted) because it might cause some confusion.
Now, ##g(x,t)=e^{-t}f(x-t)## (this is the ##f## in the original problem)
therefore ##g(x,x)\frac{\partial x}{\partial x} = e^{-x}f(0)##
and the third term vanishes not only because ##\frac{\partial a}{\partial x} = 0## but also if look closely you'll notice that the limits of integration are 0 and 0 (EDIT:- In the recursive definition of f), thus making the integral 0 as well. This is a necessary step since the integral could diverge in which case we would have to take the limit.
 
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N42dgCt1LyHE0h68Y4bDMLYD.jpg
Attached
 
It is incorrect to assume that ##f(0)=0##...
And if it was mentioned in the question, you should have told us so...
 
certainly said:
It is incorrect to assume that ##f(0)=0##...
And if it was mentioned in the question, you should have told us so...
No.. it wasn't mentioned in the question.
 
mooncrater said:

Homework Statement


The question says:
f (x)=x2+7x +∫0x(e-tf (x-t)dt.
Find f (x).
But definitely f(0) = 0
As integral from 0 to 0 is zero.
 
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errrrr... yes, sorry for that, looks like I'm finally getting sleepy...
 
certainly said:
errrrr... yes, sorry for that, looks like I'm finally getting sleepy...
For you :sleep:.
 
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