Raghav Gupta
- 1,010
- 76
certainly said:No the leibniz integral rule is:-
$$\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}f(x,t)\ dt=\int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\ dt+f(b(x),x)\frac{\partial b}{\partial x}-f(a(x),x)\frac{\partial a}{\partial x}$$
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