Definition Of Logical Connectives

  • Thread starter Thread starter Bashyboy
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Definition
AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the definitions and reasoning behind logical connectives, particularly the conditional statement p → q. It clarifies that p → q is false only when p is true and q is false, which is essential for understanding logical implications. The conversation emphasizes that to disprove a conditional statement, one must provide an example where the antecedent is true and the consequent is false. Additionally, it highlights that a false antecedent leads to a true implication, regardless of the truth value of the consequent. This understanding is crucial for grasping logical reasoning in mathematics.
Bashyboy
Messages
1,419
Reaction score
5
Hello,

I just began my Discrete Mathematics class. It is rather interesting, but I have a few questions regarding the definitions of logical connectives. For instance, my book states that the conditional statement,p \rightarrow q serving as an example, is false when p is true and and q is false, and true otherwise.

Was there reasoning used to define this, or did the person arbitrarily define it?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
p→q is read "p implies q" or "if p then q"
That is, by definition, if p is true then so is q.

So if p were true, and q were not true then, p→q would not be a true statement.

Does that make sense?

We can go through a proof if you like.
 
Bashyboy said:
Was there reasoning used to define this, or did the person arbitrarily define it?

In mathematics (and perhaps in life) if someone claims "If A is true then B is true" and you wish to disprove it, then need an example when A is true and B is false. It doesn't help to cite an example when A is false. For example, if we claim if a figure is a triangle then the sum of it's interior angles is 180 deg. then we don't want to someone to disprove that by drawing a square.

If left to non-mathematicians ,when A is false, the statement "If A then B" might be declared to be "undecided" or something like that - something neither true nor false. But this doesn't work once you begin to consider logical functions with variables in them. To turn these into "statements" , you quantify the variables with modifiers like "for each" or "there exists". We regard the statement "For each x, if 0 < x < 3 then 0 < x^2 < 9" as true. We don't want to say it's "undecided" or false because of the case when x = 234. The "if..." part is rather like a filter. If a statement correctly filters out all cases that don't apply, then the statement is true.
 
Bashyboy said:
Hello,

I just began my Discrete Mathematics class. It is rather interesting, but I have a few questions regarding the definitions of logical connectives. For instance, my book states that the conditional statement,p \rightarrow q serving as an example, is false when p is true and and q is false, and true otherwise.

Was there reasoning used to define this, or did the person arbitrarily define it?

If 2+2 = 5 then I'm the Pope. That's a true statement.

How could you disprove it? You'd have to show that

1) 2 + 2 = 5; and

2) I'm not the Pope.

But you can't do that! You can't show that 2 + 2 = 5 because that's false.

So you see, if 2 + 2 = 5 then I'm the Pope. Any implication where the antecedent is false, is a true implication.

Hope this helps. This is certainly a common area of confusion. After a while you'll get used to it. False antecedent implies anything.

By the way if I happened to be the Pope -- which, on an anonymous forum, can't be completely ruled out -- then "if 2 + 2 = 5 then I'm the Pope" is also a true implication. If the consequent is true, then the implication is true.

Therefore to make my examples work, I have to actually assure you that I am not the Pope :-) But if 2 + 2 were 5, I certainly would be.
 
Hello, I'm joining this forum to ask two questions which have nagged me for some time. They both are presumed obvious, yet don't make sense to me. Nobody will explain their positions, which is...uh...aka science. I also have a thread for the other question. But this one involves probability, known as the Monty Hall Problem. Please see any number of YouTube videos on this for an explanation, I'll leave it to them to explain it. I question the predicate of all those who answer this...
I'm taking a look at intuitionistic propositional logic (IPL). Basically it exclude Double Negation Elimination (DNE) from the set of axiom schemas replacing it with Ex falso quodlibet: ⊥ → p for any proposition p (including both atomic and composite propositions). In IPL, for instance, the Law of Excluded Middle (LEM) p ∨ ¬p is no longer a theorem. My question: aside from the logic formal perspective, is IPL supposed to model/address some specific "kind of world" ? Thanks.
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...
Back
Top