Dec 5, 2004 #1 Zaare Messages 54 Reaction score 0 It seems the derivate of an odd function (f(-x)=-f(x)) is an even function (f(-x)=f(x)), and vice versa. Is there a theroem about this?
It seems the derivate of an odd function (f(-x)=-f(x)) is an even function (f(-x)=f(x)), and vice versa. Is there a theroem about this?
Dec 5, 2004 #2 Muzza Messages 689 Reaction score 1 Suppose f is odd. We have that (f(-x))' = (-f(x))' = -f'(x). But by the chain rule, (f(-x))' = -f'(-x). Thus -f'(-x) = -f'(x) <=> f'(-x) = f'(x) <=> f' is even.
Suppose f is odd. We have that (f(-x))' = (-f(x))' = -f'(x). But by the chain rule, (f(-x))' = -f'(-x). Thus -f'(-x) = -f'(x) <=> f'(-x) = f'(x) <=> f' is even.