Derivative of Angular Momentum

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The discussion centers on why the partial derivative of angular momentum Lx with respect to x is zero. It is noted that the expression dLx/dx simplifies to d(yPz - zPy)/dx, which equals zero. This outcome is attributed to the fact that y and z are treated as constants during differentiation with respect to x. Participants reference concepts from multivariable calculus and Poisson's Bracket to clarify the reasoning. The conclusion emphasizes that the differentiation process leads to a result of zero due to the nature of the variables involved.
M. next
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Why is it that partial derivative of Lx wrt x is zero?
where: Lx (Angular momentum along x)

Yes and for further info. they wrote beside this that dLx/dx =d(yPz - zPy)/dx = 0

I guess it resulted from some determinant but I just could not figure it out.

(This was a snatch of a problem in Poisson's Bracket)
 
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M. next said:
Yes and for further info. they wrote beside this that dLx/dx =d(yPz - zPy)/dx = 0

Do you know multivariable calculus? y and z are constants when differentiated with respect to x. Hence, the result.
 
For simple comparison, I think the same thought process can be followed as a block slides down a hill, - for block down hill, simple starting PE of mgh to final max KE 0.5mv^2 - comparing PE1 to max KE2 would result in finding the work friction did through the process. efficiency is just 100*KE2/PE1. If a mousetrap car travels along a flat surface, a starting PE of 0.5 k th^2 can be measured and maximum velocity of the car can also be measured. If energy efficiency is defined by...

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