Derivative with a range constraint - mystified

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the derivative of the function defined by x=sin(a)/cos(b) under the constraints a+b < π/2, a>0, b>0, and 0 PREREQUISITES

  • Understanding of trigonometric identities and derivatives
  • Familiarity with the concepts of range constraints in calculus
  • Knowledge of the cosine and sine functions
  • Ability to manipulate algebraic expressions involving trigonometric functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of trigonometric derivatives, focusing on the chain rule
  • Explore the implications of range constraints on derivatives in calculus
  • Learn about trigonometric identities, particularly those involving sums and differences
  • Investigate counterexamples in calculus to understand the conditions under which identities hold
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on derivatives and trigonometric functions, as well as educators seeking to clarify concepts related to range constraints and trigonometric identities.

Gekko
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Homework Statement



x=sin(a) / cos(b)

a+b < pi/2
a>0, b>0
0<x<1

show that

da/dx = cos^3(b)cos(a) / cos(a+b)cos(a-b)


The Attempt at a Solution



dx/da = cos(a) / cos(b) therefore
da/dx = cos(b) / cos(a)

=cos^3(b)cos(a) / cos^2(b)cos^2(a)

However the denominator of the desired format = cos(a+b)cos(a-b) = cos^2(a)cos^2(b)-sin^2(a)sin^2(b)

Not sure how to get rid of the sin^2(a)sin^2(b) term.

Is the question wrong or is there something special that needs to be done to take into account the range of a, b and x?

Very much appreciate help as I've been totally stumped on this and the equality is required further on
 
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If you add and subtract cos2(a)sin2(b) in the denominator your equality comes out:

[tex]\frac{\cos(b)}{\cos(a)}=\frac{\cos^3(b)\cos(a)}{\cos^2(a)-\sin^2(b)}[/tex]

At least I think it does; you can check it. The problem is if you let a = b = π/6, you get the left side = 0.9742785794, the right side = 1, and x = 0.5773502695.

So it would appear something is amiss. :frown:
 
This seems to be the same question you posted in this thread.
This equation is not an identity
[tex]\frac{cos(b)}{cos(a)}=\frac{cos^3(b)cos(a)}{cos^2(a)-sin^2(b)}[/tex]
LCKurtz points out a counterexample. Another is a = π/6 and b = π/4. Using these numbers the left side value is sqrt(6)/3 and the right side value is sqrt(6)/2.
 

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