cfrogue
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DaleSpam said:Do the Lorentz transform of x=vt into the primed coordinates:
1) x = γ (x' + v t')
2) t = γ (t' + v x'/c²)
Then by substitution into x = v t
3) γ (x' + v t') = v γ (t' + v x'/c²)
Which simplifies to
4) x' = 0
Not only does that require that all events share the same x' coordinate (co-local in the primed frame with Δx'=0), but it requires that those events lie exclusively on the x'=0 line. So the condition x=vt that Einstein uses here is actually more restrictive than the co-local condition. It is not necessary to use Einstein's more restrictive condition, although he does not show it in his seminal paper it is shown elsewhere.
However, again, the time dilation formula does not apply for this measurement. The events are not co-local in any frame, and they are certainly not co-local with the origin in any frame.
Regarding the worldline diagram, I think I understand the two different paths we have been on.
You were talking about R of S, which I agree exists and I was thinking about the light sphere.
In section 3, Einstein said the following.
At the time t = τ = 0, when the origin of the co-ordinates is common to the two systems, let a spherical wave be emitted therefrom, and be propagated with the velocity c in system K. If (x, y, z) be a point just attained by this wave, then
x²+y²+z²=c²t².
Transforming this equation with the aid of our equations of transformation we obtain after a simple calculation
x'² + y'² + z'² = τ²c²
The wave under consideration is therefore no less a spherical wave with velocity of propagation c when viewed in the moving system. This shows that our two fundamental principles are compatible.5
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
Now, I assumed I could follow this argument above and look at the light sphere in O'.
Well, I could not as we showed. It depends on whether we use the left ray in O or the right ray in O.