cfrogue
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DaleSpam said:This is most certainly not true. You have been given multiple correct math derivations, all leading to the same conclusion all of which you have summarily rejected with no substantiation.
I reiterate my question: what specifically is wrong with my eq 1d)? I have gone back and verified that the Lorentz transform equations were copied down correctly in 1a) and 1b). So the only possible objection is that you think substitution is no longer a valid algebraic operation in relativity. Why do you think that?
cfrogue, atyy already presented some pretty convincing math, but let me try two other ways:
1) Lorentz transform approach:
We have the standard form of the Lorentz transform
1a) t' = ( t - vx/c^2 )γ
1b) x' = ( x - vt )γ
And we have any arbitrary equation in the primed frame
1c) x' = ct'
To obtain the corresponding equation in the unprimed frame we simply substitute 1a) and 1b) into 1c)
1d) ( x - vt )γ = c(( t - vx/c^2 )γ)
Which simplifies to
1e) x = ct
My problem with this method is that this causes the x locations in O, x and -x to be simultaneous in both O and O'.
Thus, ct = +-x and ct' = +- x'.
They are in relative motion and therefore, the two points cannot appear synchronous to both frames.