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Hi everyone,

From what I understand if you had a time varying magnetic field inside a dielectric it will induce a time varying electric field according to Faraday's Law:

[tex]\nabla\times\mathbf{E}=-\frac{\partial \mathbf{B}}{\partial t}[/tex]

My question is will the dipoles in the dielectric then polarize to the induced electric field reducing the net electric field in the dielectric (assume the dielectric to be homogeneous linear isotropic dielectric) so that the net electric field is now [tex] \varepsilon _{r} [/tex] time less than if the same thing happened in free space.

Thanks.

PS. this is my first post so tell me if I am doing something wrong or am being vague in what I am asking.

From what I understand if you had a time varying magnetic field inside a dielectric it will induce a time varying electric field according to Faraday's Law:

[tex]\nabla\times\mathbf{E}=-\frac{\partial \mathbf{B}}{\partial t}[/tex]

My question is will the dipoles in the dielectric then polarize to the induced electric field reducing the net electric field in the dielectric (assume the dielectric to be homogeneous linear isotropic dielectric) so that the net electric field is now [tex] \varepsilon _{r} [/tex] time less than if the same thing happened in free space.

Thanks.

PS. this is my first post so tell me if I am doing something wrong or am being vague in what I am asking.

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