I Difference between A and B irreps

  • I
  • Thread starter Thread starter ftft
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Difference
ftft
Messages
21
Reaction score
0
In my understanding, in group theory the one-dimensional irrep A differs from the one-dimensional irrep B in the symmetry under rotation about the principal axis: A is when the state is symmetric and B is when the state is antisymmetric under that rotation. However, I find in the character table of point group D that B1 has a character of 1 under the principal rotation operation while B2 and B3 have a character of -1.
Why the irrep is called B1 even though it has a character of 1 when rotated about the principal axis?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You will get improved answers if you can tell us what you are reading, exactly e.g., Foobar and Flatwheel, Chap 5, p. 96 ( This is meant to be an example only)
 
Do you mean the group D_2?

There are three B irreps there. I think because it is not clear what the principal rotation axis is: the three axes are equivalent.
 
ngonyama said:
Do you mean the group D_2?

There are three B irreps there. I think because it is not clear what the principal rotation axis is: the three axes are equivalent.
Thanks for the reply.. Yes, I meant D_2 group.. But why are the 3 axes equivalent? I thought the rule is that one principal axis in the system is chosen to define the properties of the irreps. Say we choose the z-axis to define the principal axis, B1 behaves like A2
 
Well, they are all two-fold axes. So, which one you choose to be the unique z-axis is really up to you. In groups like D_3 D_4 that is not so because one is a three- or fourfold and perpendicular to that you have twofolds. So then you should pick the higher order axis to be the main z-axis.
 
From the BCS theory of superconductivity is well known that the superfluid density smoothly decreases with increasing temperature. Annihilated superfluid carriers become normal and lose their momenta on lattice atoms. So if we induce a persistent supercurrent in a ring below Tc and after that slowly increase the temperature, we must observe a decrease in the actual supercurrent, because the density of electron pairs and total supercurrent momentum decrease. However, this supercurrent...
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
Back
Top