Difference between Z notation and sigma

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Ry122
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Homework Statement


What is the difference between this statement being expressed in z-notation and the notation shown? What are the benefits of the two and how do you do the conversion?
Nevermind about answering the question itself.

if X ~N(mu,sigma) show that P(|X-mu|<= 0.675*sigma) = 0.5

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

 
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Ry122 said:

Homework Statement


What is the difference between this statement being expressed in z-notation and the notation shown? What are the benefits of the two and how do you do the conversion?
Nevermind about answering the question itself.

if X ~N(mu,sigma) show that P(|X-mu|<= 0.675*sigma) = 0.5

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

The statement that$$
P(|X-\mu|\le .675\sigma)=.5$$is completely equivalent to$$
P\left(\frac{|X-\mu|}{\sigma}\le .675\right)=.5$$which is equivalent to$$
P\left(-.675\le \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}\le .675\right)=.5$$Is that what you are asking?
 
is that due to symmetry?
 
Ry122 said:
is that due to symmetry?

No, it is just algebra. To get the second statement you just divide both sides of the inequality by the positive ##\sigma## and the last form just uses properties of absolute values, specifically that ##|x|\le a## is the same thing as ##-a\le x \le a##.
 
The only normal distribution whose cdf and inverse cdf you will find tabulated is N(0,1). If [itex]X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2)[/itex] then to use tables you have instead to work with [itex]Z = (X - \mu)/\sigma \sim N(0,1)[/itex].
 
what is function N()?
 
Ry122 said:
what is function N()?

It is exactly the same N( ) that you yourself wrote in post #1. It is actually not a function, but, rather, a name (short for "Normal" or "Normal distribution").
 
LCKurtz said:
No, it is just algebra. To get the second statement you just divide both sides of the inequality by the positive ##\sigma## and the last form just uses properties of absolute values, specifically that ##|x|\le a## is the same thing as ##-a\le x \le a##.

True, but doesn't the symmetry in the algebra follow from the symmetry of the normal distribution?
 
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WWGD said:
True, but doesn't the symmetry in the algebra follows from the symmetry of the normal distribution?

No:. For a general density we have
[tex]P(|X-\mu| \leq a) = P(-a \leq X- \mu \leq a) = \int_{\mu-a}^{\mu+a} f(x) \, dx,[/tex]
whether or not ##f## possesses any symmetry properties.
 
I don't think so. There's absolutely no information about the normal distribution that goes into the algebraic manipulations LCKurtz showed above. The same algebra would have been used if X obeyed a completely different distribution.
 
What I meant is that the original formula, in the OP is satisfied by the normal, i.e. ##, P((|X- \mu|)/\sigma <0.675) ## reflects the symmetry of the normal. Obviously, ##|x|< a \rightarrow -a<x<a ## follows straightforward from definition of absolute value. But I guess the OP was referring to the derivation ##P(|x- \mu|/\sigma< 0.675 \rightarrow -0.675 \sigma < P(|x-\mu| )< 0.675 \sigma ##, so my bad, I jumped in without reading carefully.
 
micromass said:
Why would that hold? What does ##\mathbb{P}(|X-\mu)|)## even mean?

##\mathb {P}(|x- \mu|)## doesn't mean anything, what I wrote was ##P(|x-\mu|<\sigma (.675))## , which means ##P( -0.675 \sigma < x- \mu < 0.675\sigma ) ##. Anyway, I jumped in without reading carefully and I wrote something that is pointless here.

All I was trying to say (replying to no one but my own head) was that , by symmetry of the normal, ##P( x-\mu< \sigma) =P(x-\mu > -\sigma )## , which is not true for all distributions.
 
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