Kreizhn
- 714
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Hey all,
This might seem like a stupid question, and this might not be the correct forum, but hopefully someone can clarify it really easily.
I often have seen two definitions of an inner product on a vector space. Firstly, it can be defined as a bilinear map on a \mathbb F-vector space V as
\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle : V \times V \to \mathbb F[/itex]<br /> satisfying the usual inner product conditions. An example that comes to mind is the Riemannian metric, which is a 2-tensor and so acts on two copies of a tangent space. Alternatively, I've seen it defined as<br /> \langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle : V^* \times V \to \mathbb F<br /> satisfying the usual inner product conditions. An example that comes to mind here is the formalism used in the Riesz Representation theorem.<br /> <br /> The only place I've really seen the first definition is in the case of Riemannian metrics, hence the motivation for posting this discussion in this forum. <br /> <br /> Now I know that for finite dimensional vector spaces that V and V^* are isomorphic: is this the reason for the differing notations? Or is it perhaps that in the second case when the domain is V^*\times V we've some how canonically identified a vector v \in V with its induced linear functional<br /> v \mapsto \langle v, \cdot \rangle?<br /> <br /> Again, this may seem really simple but I'd appreciate any response.
This might seem like a stupid question, and this might not be the correct forum, but hopefully someone can clarify it really easily.
I often have seen two definitions of an inner product on a vector space. Firstly, it can be defined as a bilinear map on a \mathbb F-vector space V as
\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle : V \times V \to \mathbb F[/itex]<br /> satisfying the usual inner product conditions. An example that comes to mind is the Riemannian metric, which is a 2-tensor and so acts on two copies of a tangent space. Alternatively, I've seen it defined as<br /> \langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle : V^* \times V \to \mathbb F<br /> satisfying the usual inner product conditions. An example that comes to mind here is the formalism used in the Riesz Representation theorem.<br /> <br /> The only place I've really seen the first definition is in the case of Riemannian metrics, hence the motivation for posting this discussion in this forum. <br /> <br /> Now I know that for finite dimensional vector spaces that V and V^* are isomorphic: is this the reason for the differing notations? Or is it perhaps that in the second case when the domain is V^*\times V we've some how canonically identified a vector v \in V with its induced linear functional<br /> v \mapsto \langle v, \cdot \rangle?<br /> <br /> Again, this may seem really simple but I'd appreciate any response.