Dirac Delta Function: Does it Have a Residue?

elfmotat
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Does the Dirac delta fuction have a residue? Given the close parallels between the sifting property and Cauchy's integral formula + residue theory, I feel like it should. Unfortunately, I have no idea how they tie together (if they do at all).
 
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elfmotat said:
Does the Dirac delta fuction have a residue? Given the close parallels between the sifting property and Cauchy's integral formula + residue theory, I feel like it should. Unfortunately, I have no idea how they tie together (if they do at all).

This is studied in hyperfunction theory, where you write a generalized function as the "difference" between two analytic functions.

For the record, your intuition is spot on: writing the Dirac as a hyperfunction is a restatement of Cauchy.
 
Thank you, that was really helpful.
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
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