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I was reading on wikipedia on direct product of groups because I wanted find out if every subgroup of G \times H is realized as a direct product of subgroups of G and H. Apparently it is not, because the diagonal subgroup in G \times G disproves this. I'm a little confused, because I thought the proof I wrote was correct
for a subgroup write A \times B where A is a subset of G, and B a subset of H. Can't you show A is a subgroup of G using (g,1) and analogously with B? For example
m,n in A then (m,1),(n,1) are in A \times B. Hence (mn,1) is and therefore mn is in A?
There must be something wrong? Is the property true for certain type of groups? But I didn't use anything about G and H.
for a subgroup write A \times B where A is a subset of G, and B a subset of H. Can't you show A is a subgroup of G using (g,1) and analogously with B? For example
m,n in A then (m,1),(n,1) are in A \times B. Hence (mn,1) is and therefore mn is in A?
There must be something wrong? Is the property true for certain type of groups? But I didn't use anything about G and H.