Discovering the Fourier Series of a 2pi Periodic Function | Homework Help

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Fourier series of a 2π periodic function defined as f(t) = t over the interval (-π, π). The Fourier series is derived to be \(\frac{\pi^{2}}{3} + 4\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{(-1)^{n} \cos(nt)}{n^{2}}\). The user initially struggled with the calculation of the coefficients, particularly \(b_{n}\), which involves integration by parts. After clarification of the problem statement, the user successfully solved the correct function f(t) = t².

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier series and periodic functions
  • Knowledge of integration techniques, specifically integration by parts
  • Familiarity with trigonometric identities and properties of sine and cosine functions
  • Basic knowledge of odd and even functions in mathematical analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of Fourier series for different types of functions
  • Learn about convergence of Fourier series and its implications
  • Explore the application of Fourier series in signal processing
  • Investigate the properties of even and odd functions in the context of Fourier analysis
USEFUL FOR

Students studying mathematics, particularly those focusing on Fourier analysis, as well as educators and anyone involved in solving periodic function problems.

thomas49th
Messages
645
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


A 2pi peroidic function f is defined in the interval (-pi, pi) by f = t. Sketch the graph of the function and show that it's Fourier series is given by

[tex]\frac{\pi^{2}}{3} + 4\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{(-1)^{n} \cos(nt)}{n^{2}}[/tex]



Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution




Well if you draw the function you can see that it's odd therefore [tex]a_{n} = 0 a_{0} = 0[/tex]

[tex]b_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} t\sin(nt)dt[/tex]

This has to be done by parts

giving [tex]\frac{1}{\pi}[\frac{t-\cos(nt)}{n} + \frac{1}{n}\int \cos(nt) dt[/tex]

We can ignore the latter term as our limits are pi and the integral of cosine is sine and sine of any multiple of pi is 0. This means

[tex]b_{n} = \frac{1}{n\pi}[t.-\cos(nt)]^{\pi}_{-\pi}[/tex]

After plugging in the limits I find this to eqal -2pi cos(npi) which is -2pi(-1)^n

Not what it's meant to equal :(

I don't see where the n^2 comes from in the original question nor the DC value. Actually I don't see where there answer comes from altogether.

Any suggestions

Thanks
Thomas
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
apparently the question set was incorrect... After being given the correct question I solved it (f(t) = t^2)
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K