Divergence and Radially Symmetric Fields

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the possibility of a spherically symmetric field in three-dimensional space having a divergence of zero, particularly focusing on the implications of such a field being nonzero and defined across all of R^3.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether a spherically symmetric field can have a divergence of zero while being nonzero everywhere in R^3.
  • Another participant prompts for the expression of the divergence of a function that depends only on the radial distance ρ.
  • A participant proposes a specific field, F = r/(p^3), and claims that its divergence is zero, but raises concerns about its definition at the origin (x, y, z = 0).
  • Another participant confirms that the proposed field is not defined at the origin and discusses the general form of a spherically symmetric function, concluding that for the divergence to be zero, the function must take a specific form that is also undefined at the origin.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that any spherically symmetric function that has a divergence of zero must be undefined at the origin, but there is no consensus on whether such a field can exist on all of R^3 without being singular at the origin.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the limitations of the proposed functions, particularly their undefined nature at the origin, and the dependency on the specific form of the spherically symmetric function.

hellsingfan
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Is it possible for a spherically symmetric field, on all of R^3, to have a divergence of 0? (assuming the field is nonzero)

Relevant equation:

F=f(ρ)a (a is a unit vector of <x,y,z>) and f(ρ) is scalar fxn, and ρ = lal
 
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You have almost answered your own question! Do you know what the expression for the divergence of your function of ρ only would look like? What happens if that expression is 0?
 
Well after some calculations I came with the conclusion that it is possible with the following field:

F= r/(p^3) where r = <x,y,z> and p^3 = (x^2+y^2+z^2)^(3/2). The divergence is 0.

But does this exist on all of R^3?, since the denominator could be 0 at x,y,z=0?
 
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That is indeed not defined at the origin, and we can show that the same holds true of any function with that property.
If we take the divergence of the most general type of spherically symmetric function: F(r) = f(r)\hat{r}, we get (\nabla\cdot F)(r) = \frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r^2 f(r)). If we set this equal to 0, we see that r2*f(r) must be a constant if f(r) is to be only a function of r, which means f(r) = \frac{k}{r^2} for some constant k. This is necessarily not defined when r = 0.
 

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