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I don't understand what I am doing wrong here.
I'm supposed to show that this function is divergence free.
\vec v = \left( \frac{x}{x^2+y^2}, \frac{y}{x^2+y^2} \right)
I ran the divergence through with my TI-89 at it equals 0. But, I want to calculate it by hand, so it would be easier to do this in polar coordinates (and this is my problem).
\vec v(r,\theta) = \left ( \frac{\cos \theta}{r}, \frac{\sin \theta}{r} \left)
Standard divergence in cylindrical coordinates (dropping the z component)
div\,\, \vec u = \frac{1}{r} \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial r} (rF_r) +\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} (F_\theta) \right)
div\,\, \vec v = \frac{1}{r}\left( \frac{\partial}{\partial r} (\cos \theta ) + \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}\left (\frac{\sin \theta}{r} \right) \right)
Now this is obviously not 0, since the \sin \theta is not going anywhere with the partials. So what am I doing wrong?
Thanks,
I'm supposed to show that this function is divergence free.
\vec v = \left( \frac{x}{x^2+y^2}, \frac{y}{x^2+y^2} \right)
I ran the divergence through with my TI-89 at it equals 0. But, I want to calculate it by hand, so it would be easier to do this in polar coordinates (and this is my problem).
\vec v(r,\theta) = \left ( \frac{\cos \theta}{r}, \frac{\sin \theta}{r} \left)
Standard divergence in cylindrical coordinates (dropping the z component)
div\,\, \vec u = \frac{1}{r} \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial r} (rF_r) +\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} (F_\theta) \right)
div\,\, \vec v = \frac{1}{r}\left( \frac{\partial}{\partial r} (\cos \theta ) + \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}\left (\frac{\sin \theta}{r} \right) \right)
Now this is obviously not 0, since the \sin \theta is not going anywhere with the partials. So what am I doing wrong?
Thanks,