Undergrad Do diffeomorphisms have to be one-to-one functions?

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A diffeomorphism requires a differentiable inverse, which necessitates that the original function be one-to-one to ensure the inverse is also a function. If a function is not one-to-one, it cannot have an inverse that qualifies as a function. Therefore, the original function must be injective for it to be classified as a diffeomorphism. This concept is fundamental in understanding the properties of functions in calculus. The discussion highlights the importance of injectivity in the context of diffeomorphisms.
Antineutrino
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The definition of a diffeomorphism involves the differentiable inverse of a function, so must the original function be one-to-one to make its inverse a function, or can the inverse be a relation and not a function?

Sorry if it's a silly question, I am just a second semester calc student who looked at this for fun.
 
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Antineutrino said:
The definition of a diffeomorphism involves the differentiable inverse of a function, so must the original function be one-to-one to make its inverse a function, or can the inverse be a relation and not a function?

Sorry if it's a silly question, I am just a second semester calc student who looked at this for fun.
If a function is not one-to-one, then it has no inverse.
 

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