MHB Do independent experiments add to probability?

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When two independent experiments, each with a 70% accuracy rate, predict the same outcome (type A), the combined probability of that outcome being correct increases significantly. The probability of at least one experiment being correct is calculated as 1 minus the probability of both being incorrect, resulting in a 91% certainty when both predict type A. This demonstrates that independent tests can enhance confidence in predictions. The discussion highlights the mathematical relationship between independent probabilities and certainty. Additional references to the underlying theory of probability were requested for further understanding.
karamand
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There are two categories of objects, A and B.
From long term observation, experiment 1 is known to be 70% accurate i.e. it predicts type A or B correctly in 70% of cases.
Experiment 2 is totally independent. It uses different methods and different characteristics. It is also known to predict correctly in 70% of cases.
If both experiment 1 and experiment 2 predict type A, what is the probability that it is type A. Does the fact that both experiments predict the same outcome add to my certainty?
 
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philpq said:
There are two categories of objects, A and B.
From long term observation, experiment 1 is known to be 70% accurate i.e. it predicts type A or B correctly in 70% of cases.
Experiment 2 is totally independent. It uses different methods and different characteristics. It is also known to predict correctly in 70% of cases.
If both experiment 1 and experiment 2 predict type A, what is the probability that it is type A. Does the fact that both experiments predict the same outcome add to my certainty?

The probability of correct reasult in case of single test is $P = 1 - .3 = .7$... in case of two tests is $P = 1 - (.3)^{2} = .91$... on case of three test is $P= 1 - (.3)^{3}= .973$ and so on...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Thanks - that's what I intuitively felt. The additional test added to my confidence. Do you have any reference to the theory behind this?

Regards
Phil
 
I was reading documentation about the soundness and completeness of logic formal systems. Consider the following $$\vdash_S \phi$$ where ##S## is the proof-system making part the formal system and ##\phi## is a wff (well formed formula) of the formal language. Note the blank on left of the turnstile symbol ##\vdash_S##, as far as I can tell it actually represents the empty set. So what does it mean ? I guess it actually means ##\phi## is a theorem of the formal system, i.e. there is a...
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