No, there would be NO force on the particle.
The reason is due to relativity: electromagnetic fields exhibit Lorentzian invariance; not Galilean invariance. In fact, the Lorentz-invariance of Maxwell's equations is what inspired the development of relativity in the first place, and this very example played a part.
First, consider the case of the
moving particle, going through a
stationary magnetic field. Obviously this particle will be deflected at right angles to its trajectory. But what does this configuration look like in the rest frame of the particle?
The error you are committing is that you are assuming that, in the rest frame of the particle, this configuration will look like a moving magnetic field passing a stationary particle. But in fact, that is not true. In reality, the electromagnetic field transforms according to a Lorentz transformation.
This is difficult to explain if you haven't studied relativity yet, but the basic idea is that the electromagnetic field is actually a
single mathematical object, in the form of a 4x4 matrix (called a "tensor"), rather than two separate vector fields. It looks like this:
F = \left[ \begin{array}{cccc} 0 & E_x & E_y & E_z \\ -E_x & 0 & -B_z & B_y \\ -E_y & B_z & 0 & -B_x \\ -E_z & -B_y & B_x & 0 \end{array} \right]
(Note: You might end up with some factors of c, depending on your choice of units.)
In order to compare electromagnetic fields in different reference frames, you need to transform this matrix via a Lorentz transformation, which is basically matrix multiplication. The end result is that, when you transform from one reference frame to another, the electric and magnetic fields are allowed to mix!
If you have a pure magnetic field in one frame, you will actually have a
combination of electric and magnetic fields in a moving frame. It so happens that the
electric field so calculated is just the right magnitude and direction such that it produces the same perpendicular deflection force as would be observed in the case of the particle moving. This page offers more explanation:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moving_magnet_and_conductor_problem
The main idea is that there is no such thing as a "moving magnetic field". You can have a
changing magnetic field, which will produce observable effects. But if the magnetic field is constant over time, then it does not matter whether the source of the field is "moving" or not; the magnetic field is not changing.