Does the Sequence a_{n}=\frac{(n+2)!}{n!} Converge or Diverge?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence or divergence of the sequence defined by a_{n}=\frac{(n+2)!}{n!}. Participants are exploring the behavior of the sequence as n approaches infinity, particularly focusing on the factorial expressions involved.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to analyze the sequence using limits and rewriting factorial expressions. Questions arise about the relationships between different factorials and how to simplify the original equation.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing guidance on rewriting the sequence and clarifying factorial relationships. There is no explicit consensus yet, as different interpretations and approaches are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the definitions and properties of factorials, and there is a focus on ensuring the rewritten forms accurately represent the original sequence.

Winzer
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Homework Statement


Determine wheatehr the sequence diiverges or converges:

Homework Equations


[tex]a_{n}=\frac{(n+2)!}{n!}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


I was going to treat it using limits but the factorial is not defined for a function.
How do I deal with this?
Edit: sorry it is suppose to be: [tex]a_{n}=\frac{(n+2)!}{n!}[/tex] not[tex]a_{n}=\frac{(n+1)!}{n!}[/tex]
 
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Try rewriting (n+1)! in a different form. What do you notice about the relationship between (n+1)! and n!?
 
Ok I am pretty sure the it will diverge because (n+1)! goes faster to infinity than n!

rewrite like: [tex]a_{n}= 1+\frac{1}{n!}[/tex] ?
 
Your rewritten version of the equation is not equal to the original equation. In fact, I believe the rewritten equation converges to 1 (do you see why?), thereby contradicting your statement above.

Please rewrite the numerator again, keeping in mind the goal of trying to simplify the equation.
 
can i say n! = n(n-1)! and sub that in?
 
Yes! You are on the right track. If you try rewriting the numerator instead of the denominator, I think you will have more luck.
 
but how would i rewrite the numerator?
 
So, you know that n!= n(n-1)!... why is it not clear to you that that is precisely the same as (n+1)!=(n+1)n!? Or (n+1)!=(n+2)*(n+1)! ?
 
how is n!= n(n-1)! the same as (n+1)!=(n+1)n!??
 
  • #10
what I meant was how did u get that?
 
  • #11
Winzer said:
what I meant was how did u get that?

The formula is true for all n. If n!=n*(n-1)! then changing n->n+1 gives (n+1)!=(n+1)*n!. In this sense, it's the 'same formula'. You may wish to try this for n->n+2. Can you show (n+2)!=(n+2)*(n+1)*n! at least for large enough n?
 
  • #12
Oh ok, thanks dick for clarifying, I just didn't think of it like that.
Indeed I worked it out and n->n+2 is (n+2)!=(n+2)*(n+1)*n!.
 

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