Does the Sequence a_{n}=\frac{(n+2)!}{n!} Converge or Diverge?

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Winzer
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Homework Statement


Determine wheatehr the sequence diiverges or converges:

Homework Equations


[tex]a_{n}=\frac{(n+2)!}{n!}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


I was going to treat it using limits but the factorial is not defined for a function.
How do I deal with this?
Edit: sorry it is suppose to be: [tex]a_{n}=\frac{(n+2)!}{n!}[/tex] not[tex]a_{n}=\frac{(n+1)!}{n!}[/tex]
 
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Try rewriting (n+1)! in a different form. What do you notice about the relationship between (n+1)! and n!?
 
Ok I am pretty sure the it will diverge because (n+1)! goes faster to infinity than n!

rewrite like: [tex]a_{n}= 1+\frac{1}{n!}[/tex] ?
 
Your rewritten version of the equation is not equal to the original equation. In fact, I believe the rewritten equation converges to 1 (do you see why?), thereby contradicting your statement above.

Please rewrite the numerator again, keeping in mind the goal of trying to simplify the equation.
 
Yes! You are on the right track. If you try rewriting the numerator instead of the denominator, I think you will have more luck.
 
So, you know that n!= n(n-1)!... why is it not clear to you that that is precisely the same as (n+1)!=(n+1)n!? Or (n+1)!=(n+2)*(n+1)! ?
 
Winzer said:
what I meant was how did u get that?

The formula is true for all n. If n!=n*(n-1)! then changing n->n+1 gives (n+1)!=(n+1)*n!. In this sense, it's the 'same formula'. You may wish to try this for n->n+2. Can you show (n+2)!=(n+2)*(n+1)*n! at least for large enough n?
 
Oh ok, thanks dick for clarifying, I just didn't think of it like that.
Indeed I worked it out and n->n+2 is (n+2)!=(n+2)*(n+1)*n!.