Double integral on one function of x and another of y

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The discussion centers on the application of Fubini's theorem to double integrals involving functions of two variables, specifically f(x) and g(y). The user presents a proof demonstrating that the double integral over a rectangular region A can be separated into the product of two single integrals, confirming the validity of their argument. DonAntonio affirms the correctness of the proof and highlights its utility in simplifying various problems related to double integrals.

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carlosbgois
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Hi there. I think I have proved on little theorem on double integrals, showed below. Are my arguments 'correct' (I mean, rigorous enough)?

Let [itex]f[/itex] be a function of [itex]x, f(x)[/itex], [itex]g[/itex] be a function depending only on [itex]y, g(y)[/itex], and last, let [itex]A[/itex] be the set determined by [itex]a≤x≤b[/itex] and [itex]c≤y≤d[/itex]. By Fubini's theorem, [itex]\int\int_{A}f(x)g(y)dxdy=\int^{d}_{c}[\int^{b}_{a}f(x)g(y)dx]dy.[/itex] Knowing [itex]g[/itex] is a function only dependent on [itex]y[/itex], it is a constant when integrating over x, hence we have [itex]\int^{d}_{c}[g(y)\int^{b}_{a}f(x)dx]dy.[/itex] Still, as [itex]f[/itex] depends only on [itex]x[/itex], so does any integral over [itex]f[/itex], then finally [itex]\int^{d}_{c}g(y)dy \int^{b}_{a}f(x)dx.[/itex]

Many thanks.
 
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carlosbgois said:
Hi there. I think I have proved on little theorem on double integrals, showed below. Are my arguments 'correct' (I mean, rigorous enough)?

Let [itex]f[/itex] be a function of [itex]x, f(x)[/itex], [itex]g[/itex] be a function depending only on [itex]y, g(y)[/itex], and last, let [itex]A[/itex] be the set determined by [itex]a≤x≤b[/itex] and [itex]c≤y≤d[/itex]. By Fubini's theorem, [itex]\int\int_{A}f(x)g(y)dxdy=\int^{d}_{c}[\int^{b}_{a}f(x)g(y)dx]dy.[/itex] Knowing [itex]g[/itex] is a function only dependent on [itex]y[/itex], it is a constant when integrating over x, hence we have [itex]\int^{d}_{c}[g(y)\int^{b}_{a}f(x)dx]dy.[/itex] Still, as [itex]f[/itex] depends only on [itex]x[/itex], so does any integral over [itex]f[/itex], then finally [itex]\int^{d}_{c}g(y)dy \int^{b}_{a}f(x)dx.[/itex]

Many thanks.



Kudos if you reached this result by yourself, but in fact it follows in a pretty simple way from well known properties of integrals.

DonAntonio
 
Yes it does follows easily, nice to know it is correct. It can simplify many problems as I was testing just now. Thanks!
 

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