Double slit experiment -WHAt is it it showing or proving

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The double slit experiment demonstrates the wave-particle duality of light and electrons, showing that both can exhibit wave-like interference patterns. Light creates an interference pattern when passing through slits, indicating its wave properties, while electrons also produce similar patterns, suggesting they too behave as waves. The photoelectric effect, on the other hand, provides evidence for the particle nature of light, as it requires specific energy bursts to eject electrons from a material, contradicting the continuous energy delivery expected from wave theory. Discussions around the experiment highlight the complexity of understanding light's dual nature, with some questioning how phenomena like prisms relate to wave-particle duality. Overall, the experiment remains a fundamental topic in quantum physics, illustrating the intricate relationship between light and matter.
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Double slit experiment --WHAt is it it showing or proving

Im just not getting the general concept of what this experiment proves.
Please explain in very simple language --thanks!
 
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Particle/wave duality for starters. The electron 'particle' interferes with itself indicating it behaves as a wave.
 


The double slit experiment is important because able to provide direct evidence of whether something has wave like properties or not.

For instance, the fact that light produces the famous double-slit interference pattern from passing through the slits is direct evidence of it's wavelike properties. Only waves will produce such a pattern. This is how Thomas Young found evidence for the wavelike nature of light.

Along the same lines, the double slit experiment performed with electrons also produces a similar interference pattern. Thus, this is evidence for the fact that electrons, have wave-like properties.
 


I don't mean to push this topic into an undesired direction, however I think an examination of the other side of the concept could shed some... light... on a few questions some of us have tucked away in our minds:

If the double-slit proved wave-like properties of light.. what was it that proved particle-like properties of light?
 


The photoelectric effect.
 


Doesn't a prism prove the same thing?

It often seems that the particle/wave question is presented to us layman as an either/or situation, is it a wave, is it a particle, but water and electricty consist of particles that can "wave" so I don't really understand what is the issue at hand.
 


How does a prism prove particle-wave duality?
 


I doubt the prisim proves anything about the wave-particle duality, but it does prove whether the source of light is purely one frequency or not haha.

The photoelectric effect, i.e. the jumping of electrons from inner shells to outer shells when shone on by light, proves the particle theory of light because the energy needed to cause an electron to jump say from shell 1 to shell 2, is very specific (quantised), and if light was a wave, light would deliver a continuous energy, not in "bursts" which is needed to jump the electron to an outer shell.

The explanation of what does light actually exist in is photons, which are "particles" of light. And! That these particles are actually "packets of waves". So this provides a way for the wave-particle duality theory can be fathomed.
 


It shows that light can be diffracted and undergo interference, which are characteristic properties of a wave.
 
  • #10


Landru said:
Doesn't a prism prove the same thing?

It often seems that the particle/wave question is presented to us layman as an either/or situation, is it a wave, is it a particle, but water and electricty consist of particles that can "wave" so I don't really understand what is the issue at hand.
No. Water waves are waves in water- water does not itself consist of waves. When we say that light can be considered either a wave or a particle we are not talking about wave of light particles.

Of course, Quantum Physics says that we can consider anything sufficiently small to have both wave and particle properties.
 
  • #11


HallsofIvy said:
When we say that light can be considered either a wave or a particle we are not talking about wave of light particles.

If you supposed that light was a particle-free wave then what would that wave be made of? If it was a wave expressed in the particles of something else like a sound wave then how would light traverse a vacuum?
 
  • #12


Defennder said:
How does a prism prove particle-wave duality?

The photo electric effect proves the particle aspect. I'm not sure that the double slit experiment does that or not. The rainbow of color that comes out of a prism is due to the changing the wave lengths of the light entering it.
 
  • #13


jenzao said:
Im just not getting the general concept of what this experiment proves.
Please explain in very simple language --thanks!

Young's original experiment was performed to show that light has wave-like properties. In order to do this, he needed to prepare a special state of light, and carefully control the slit geometry.

The experiment is a very fundamental type of measurement- it measured how spatially coherent the incident wave is (although at the time, the concept of coherence was not known). The experiment was later used to demonstrate that massive particles- electrons originally, but later on atoms and molecules- things that were considered to be point particles (or something very close to that) also possesses extended wave-like properties.

That the experiment is still worth discussing indicates how many fundamental concepts are involved with analyzing the results.
 
  • #14


Landru said:
The photo electric effect proves the particle aspect. I'm not sure that the double slit experiment does that or not. The rainbow of color that comes out of a prism is due to the changing the wave lengths of the light entering it.

I'm not sure what you meant here, Landru, but the prism does not change the wavelength of incident light to produce the rainbow.

A rainbow produced by a prism is due to the fact that the index of refraction of the glass is different for different wavelengths of light. Thus, different wavelengths are bent by different amounts. So, white light entering a prism will broken up into it's component colors to produce the rainbow you see from the prism.
 
  • #15


I'm just saying a prism wouldn't work if light didn't have wave properties.
 
  • #16


Landru said:
If you supposed that light was a particle-free wave then what would that wave be made of? If it was a wave expressed in the particles of something else like a sound wave then how would light traverse a vacuum?
Before the Michelson Morley experiment, many people would tell you that EM waves are waves propagating along the ether medium. But no one ever envisaged of the ether as being composed of particles, except perhaps those particle-minded physicists like Newton who subscribed to the Cartesian notion of a mechnanical world.
 
  • #17


Firstly, Layman speaking here. Possibly a moderately self educated layman who has yet to explore certain fundamental areas of the topic to have a full understanding of it. So please understand when I ask questions that I'm asking for my own edification, rather than to try and appear smarter than I know I am. That said; Thanks to all who are willing to walk with me through this discussion, because these things touch the core of what I have spent a great many of my years trying to comprehend on a practical level.


Tw15t3r said:
The photoelectric effect, i.e. the jumping of electrons from inner shells to outer shells when shone on by light, proves the particle theory of light because the energy needed to cause an electron to jump say from shell 1 to shell 2, is very specific (quantised), and if light was a wave, light would deliver a continuous energy, not in "bursts" which is needed to jump the electron to an outer shell.

I'm not extremely familiar with the relationship between the photoelectric effect and quantum mechanics. I do understand (I think) how it's been described, and how those better versed in the specifics of the topic try to explain it to the layman (i.e. me). However, it comes down to things like this where one doesn't really have the means to experiment and verify touted results personally, and is forced to take literature on a good-faith basis. I'm not sure that I'm ready to do that just yet, so that leaves me with many unanswered questions.

I guess my main issue here is that I don't really understand what it is about the mechanics of the photoelectric effect that can't be described with pure wave theory in some form. For example; Could not a summation of two differing wavelengths provide the precise 'burst' of energy required to jump electrons to an outer shell at a consistent frequency? I'm considering that each waveform would provide continuos energy onto the particle independent of each other, but the summation would create a third sine wave oscillation effect onto the particle that would apply the correct energy at one of the infinite crossections of the wave summation to have the observed effect of shell jumping. Which doesn't even account for the great number of wave combinations that a particle experiences from any particular light source.

Even narrow-band laser light should emit overlapping wavelengths that would cause the same effect- albeit slightly different variations of the effect as compared to a wider-band emission source.


I expect that there is a mathematical reason why this exact explanation couldn't be used to describe the photo-electric effect, however I'm just trying to seek out the reasoning behind why pure-wave form photons were ruled out entirely beyond the shadow of a doubt as a possibility.
 
  • #18


Tw15t3r said:
The photoelectric effect, i.e. the jumping of electrons from inner shells to outer shells when shone on by light, proves the particle theory of light because the energy needed to cause an electron to jump say from shell 1 to shell 2, is very specific (quantised), and if light was a wave, light would deliver a continuous energy, not in "bursts" which is needed to jump the electron to an outer shell.
This is incorrect. The photoelectric effect is about electrons being liberated (emitted from metal surface) and not merely promoted from an inner shell to an outer shell. The theory which makes use of the electrons being promoted from the inner shells to the outer is the one on gas absorption of light.
 
  • #19


Cryptonic26 said:
I guess my main issue here is that I don't really understand what it is about the mechanics of the photoelectric effect that can't be described with pure wave theory in some form. For example; Could not a summation of two differing wavelengths provide the precise 'burst' of energy required to jump electrons to an outer shell at a consistent frequency? I'm considering that each waveform would provide continuos energy onto the particle independent of each other, but the summation would create a third sine wave oscillation effect onto the particle that would apply the correct energy at one of the infinite crossections of the wave summation to have the observed effect of shell jumping. Which doesn't even account for the great number of wave combinations that a particle experiences from any particular light source.
The experiment showed that the intensity of incident light on the metal made no difference if there was no photoelectric current observed for a particular frequency of the light source. In classical EM theory, we would expect the energy of the incident light wave to be dependent only on the amplitude of the waveform. The photoelectric effect disproved that notion, because it showed that frequency of light mattered as well. But of course this made no sense in the wave theory, whereby frequency has no influence on the energy of the wave.

As for whether the electrons could "accumulate" energy from incident waves of low frequency before emission, the photoelectric effect showed that it wasn't possible. I remember my physics lectuer once said that it's not impossible to liberate metal surface electrons with lower frequency light source by "accumulating" energy, but the overwhelmingly mode of photo-electric emission is by all-or-nothing energy from the light source, not by steady accumulation.

The setup you described of using light of different wavelength isn't applicable here because the photoelectric experiment only made use of monochromatic light sources. Otherwise, no conclusion could be drawn from the experiment if light of different colours were shone on the metal.
 
  • #20


Defennder said:
Before the Michelson Morley experiment, many people would tell you that EM waves are waves propagating along the ether medium. But no one ever envisaged of the ether as being composed of particles, except perhaps those particle-minded physicists like Newton who subscribed to the Cartesian notion of a mechnanical world.

The Michaelson-Morley experiment had nothing to do with the wave/particle nature of light (or matter). The corpuscular theory of light was held in prominence well into the 1800's: Poisson, in particular, was one of the last hold-outs.

The aether was assumed to be a continuous field of something that pervaded all the universe.
 
  • #21


Cryptonic26 said:
<snip>
I expect that there is a mathematical reason why this exact explanation couldn't be used to describe the photo-electric effect, however I'm just trying to seek out the reasoning behind why pure-wave form photons were ruled out entirely beyond the shadow of a doubt as a possibility.

There's a difference between intensity and energy: a low-frequency (low energy) light source of 10 bizillion watts will not eject a single photo-electron, while a high frequency (high energy) light source of incredibly low intensity will eject photo-electrons at a well-defined rate, proportional to the intensity.

Based on this data, the interpretation is that light comes in discrete packets of energy, in correspondence with a particle-type model.
 
  • #22


Andy Resnick said:
The Michaelson-Morley experiment had nothing to do with the wave/particle nature of light (or matter). The corpuscular theory of light was held in prominence well into the 1800's: Poisson, in particular, was one of the last hold-outs.

The aether was assumed to be a continuous field of something that pervaded all the universe.
I didn't claim so, I was addressing another poster's post on the propagation of EM waves through a medium.
 
  • #23


Andy Resnick said:
There's a difference between intensity and energy: a low-frequency (low energy) light source of 10 bizillion watts will not eject a single photo-electron, while a high frequency (high energy) light source of incredibly low intensity will eject photo-electrons at a well-defined rate, proportional to the intensity.

Based on this data, the interpretation is that light comes in discrete packets of energy, in correspondence with a particle-type model.

That's all good and well, but I think it's the "based on this data, the interpretation is..." part that is harder to understand. I am also confused as to how this means light must be "quantized", most explanations Google turns up skip over the specifics in this same manner.
 
  • #24


Well the key point about the photoelectric effect is that the wave theory assumes that energy of a wave is influenced only by amplitude and not by its frequency. Which effectively means that even if the frequency affects the energy, and if an incident light source is really low, you can compensate for it by increasing the intensity of the incident light by a lot. And this was contradicted by photoelectric effect.
 
  • #25


Defennder said:
Well the key point about the photoelectric effect is that the wave theory assumes that energy of a wave is influenced only by amplitude and not by its frequency. Which effectively means that even if the frequency affects the energy, and if an incident light source is really low, you can compensate for it by increasing the intensity of the incident light by a lot. And this was contradicted by photoelectric effect.

That's really hard to make sense of.
 
  • #26


Landru said:
That's really hard to make sense of.

Okay, if light were waves, then the same number of electrons would be knocked loose by identical amplitudes of ultra-violet and red light. However when the experiment is run, it is found that there is a difference in the number of electrons released.

A good resource for basic introduction to the topic is:
http://www.colorado.edu/physics/2000/quantumzone/photoelectric.html
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #27


I think what it is that bothers me the most about these statements is that assumptions are required to make these statements true. At least, that's what I'm gathering so far.

Would it be logically incorrect to say that there is a possibility that photowave mechanics were not fully understood when it was decided that only particle photons could create this photo-electric effect?

In other words.. If one could offer an alternative explination as to how a pure wave model could create the same effect, would that throw the fundamentals of particle wave duality theory into question? Or are there other reasons that suggest particle wave duality as well as this observation?
 
  • #28


Landru said:
That's really hard to make sense of.
Think of it this way. Wave theory says that the energy of a wave, such as light, is given by its amplitude, not the frequency. Which means to say that given a particular wave, increasing its amplitude would also increase the amount of energy a light wave could provide to metal surface electrons. The photoelectric effect is the observation that metal surface electrons could be liberated from the surface by shining a light source of sufficient energy on it.

The wave theory says that since the amount of energy is determined by the wave amplitude, which is proportionate to the intensity of the light source (Poynting vector), if shining a low-frequency light on metal does not liberate any electrons (which are measurable as photo-current), all one needs to do is brighten that light by increasing the intensity and hence amplitude of the incident light wave. Even if we assume that the the frequency of the light affects the amount of energy associated with the wave, it was thought that one could always compensate for the low-frequency light wave by increasing the intensity of the light source.

The photoelectric effect shows that this isn't true. In other words, if one uses a low frequency light source, no matter how great the intensity (or brightness) of the light source is, there would not be any electrons emitted from the surface of the metal. In contrast, if you instead use a low-intensity but high frequency light source there will be electrons ejected from the metal.
 
  • #29


Cryptonic26 said:
In other words.. If one could offer an alternative explination as to how a pure wave model could create the same effect, would that throw the fundamentals of particle wave duality theory into question? Or are there other reasons that suggest particle wave duality as well as this observation?
The keyword here is quantisation of energy. The wave theory doesn't say that energy is quantised, whereas the particle picture strongly suggests so. There are plenty of other observations which complements the wave-particle duality picture as well, such as the double slit experiment.

Anyway it looks like this thread is turning into a discussion of the photoelectric effect instead of the significance of the double slit experiment.
 
  • #30


Cryptonic26 said:
I think what it is that bothers me the most about these statements is that assumptions are required to make these statements true. At least, that's what I'm gathering so far.

Would it be logically incorrect to say that there is a possibility that photowave mechanics were not fully understood when it was decided that only particle photons could create this photo-electric effect?

In other words.. If one could offer an alternative explination as to how a pure wave model could create the same effect, would that throw the fundamentals of particle wave duality theory into question? Or are there other reasons that suggest particle wave duality as well as this observation?

That's a great question. Most Googlable sources refer back to the photo-electric effect in this context and rarely bother to explain how it's double verified in some other way. It seems that a lot of people who set out to explain physics fail to realize they've only told half the story. I'm sure there's practical proof, but it's not good enough that I just assume, I'm not religious.
 
  • #31


Defennder said:
Anyway it looks like this thread is turning into a discussion of the photoelectric effect instead of the significance of the double slit experiment.
Lol, yeah. The double slit experiment also proved the wave-particle duality of things at the very small scale, like electrons for example. You would imagine electrons to be "billiard balls", but hey, no, they are probability waves.
 
  • #32


Defennder said:
<snip>
The wave theory says that since the amount of energy is determined by the wave amplitude, which is proportionate to the intensity of the light source (Poynting vector), <snip>

Small quibble in an otherwise excellent post: the Poynting vector is associated with momentum, not energy.
 
  • #33


Defennder said:
This is incorrect. The photoelectric effect is about electrons being liberated (emitted from metal surface) and not merely promoted from an inner shell to an outer shell. The theory which makes use of the electrons being promoted from the inner shells to the outer is the one on gas absorption of light.

Woops, thanks for correcting me.

ZharAngel has a point pertaining to the subject of this thread. Electrons, which are supposed to be particles, have proven to exhibit the same type of interference pattern when the same double slit experiment is performed, suggesting wave properties.

And regarding mashing two different frequencies of light to cause the pulsing to hopefully excite an electron (whether to eject it or not doesn't matter), one must remember that if such a method is done, only the amplitude will end up being pulsed, and not the frequency, which is what that affects rate of electron ejection.


But an interesting thing that I have not been able to explain myself is that: E=hf, but intensity is proportional to energy/(area x time). If both are energy, what are the differences? And according to the law of conservation of energy, can they be converted between each other?
 
  • #34


How would physicists know if double slit experiment results aren't due to interaction with electrons in the molecules at the edges of the slits? There could be some special interaction between these electrons and either light or a free stream electrons. One property of the molecules at a sharp edge is that they are more "exposed", where both refraction and reflection could take place.
 
  • #35


Defennder said:
Think of it this way. Wave theory says that the energy of a wave, such as light, is given by its amplitude, not the frequency. Which means to say that given a particular wave, increasing its amplitude would also increase the amount of energy a light wave could provide to metal surface electrons. The photoelectric effect is the observation that metal surface electrons could be liberated from the surface by shining a light source of sufficient energy on it.

The wave theory says that since the amount of energy is determined by the wave amplitude, which is proportionate to the intensity of the light source (Poynting vector), if shining a low-frequency light on metal does not liberate any electrons (which are measurable as photo-current), all one needs to do is brighten that light by increasing the intensity and hence amplitude of the incident light wave. Even if we assume that the the frequency of the light affects the amount of energy associated with the wave, it was thought that one could always compensate for the low-frequency light wave by increasing the intensity of the light source.

The photoelectric effect shows that this isn't true. In other words, if one uses a low frequency light source, no matter how great the intensity (or brightness) of the light source is, there would not be any electrons emitted from the surface of the metal. In contrast, if you instead use a low-intensity but high frequency light source there will be electrons ejected from the metal.

What I don't understand and what I can't find is why a single high energy photon can pop off an electron but lots of low evergy photons won't even if the low evergy photons are collectively more energetic than the single high energy photon.
 
  • #36


Jeff Reid said:
How would physicists know if double slit experiment results aren't due to interaction with electrons in the molecules at the edges of the slits? There could be some special interaction between these electrons and either light or a free stream electrons. One property of the molecules at a sharp edge is that they are more "exposed", where both refraction and reflection could take place.

Assuming the edges of the slits could and did reflect light like a perfect mirror the interferance pattern would be extremely faint in comparison to the line of site, but as it is the interference is relatively bright. The number of photons that follow the wave outline greatly outnumbers what would be accounted for due to reflection alone.
 
  • #37


Landru said:
Assuming the edges of the slits could and did reflect light like a perfect mirror the interferance pattern would be extremely faint in comparison to the line of site, but as it is the interference is relatively bright. The number of photons that follow the wave outline greatly outnumbers what would be accounted for due to reflection alone.
My point was about refraction (the apparent bending of light), not reflection.
 
  • #38


Jeff Reid said:
My point was about refraction (the apparent bending of light), not reflection.

All the same, there are more photons hitting within the interference area than are interacting with the edges of the slits.
 
  • #39


Landru said:
What I don't understand and what I can't find is why a single high energy photon can pop off an electron but lots of low evergy photons won't even if the low evergy photons are collectively more energetic than the single high energy photon.

Well, in principle they can via two photon absorption, but this process is usually not very likely as it is a nonlinear effect. Those electronic excitation processes happen very fast, somewhere between the attosecond and femtosecond range, so two photons need to "hit" the electron in a very short time window somewhere between 10^{-15} and 10^{-18} seconds.

In an hypothetical example you now have a monochromatic light source of 10 mW power (this is already more than one of the HeNe lasers in my lab has), which emits photons of 1 eV energy (somewhere in the infrared), but you need exactly 2 eV to liberate the electrons. A quick calculation shows, that there are about 6,2 * 10^{16} photons emitted per second, so the number of photons arriving within a femtosecond is about 60 photons. Now you also have to consider, that the time window is smaller than a femtosecond, the beam will be very large compared to the cross section of the electron, conservation rules apply (spin, for example) and by far not every photon will interact with the electron. So even with a VERY optimistic estimate, you will have a few thousand two photon absorptions per second and a few liberated electrons.

So the reason, why the high energy photons work better, is that you have to compare the number of photons arriving within a certain time window (high energy case) to the number of photon pairs arriving within a certain time window (low energy case). So unless you go to very, very high intensities, liberating electrons with low energy photons won't work.
 
  • #40


I guess we have been going along the wrong way in this discussion since the beginning, although I am sure all the messages have added for the comprehension of the subject. I suspect the "double slit experiment" first referred was not exactly Young's original 1801 experiment, but rather low energy (single photons) double slit exposure. Imagine a source of light very, very dim, placed in front of a double slit which, in turn, stands in front of a very sensitive photographic plate. This is all in a completely dark chamber, and supposely one can replace the photographic plate at will. Now assume the experimenter turns the source on and expose the photographic plate for a very short time, then replace it and exposes the second plate for a little bit longer, and so on, until the last plate, which is exposed for quite a long time. When the plates are developed, a funny thing shows up: in the first plate, the experimenter observes a few bright dots, as if particles of light had been shot through the slits and hit the plate (awkwardly, some might even hit the plate in regions in the geometrical shadow of the slits, but eventually the experimenter could think of the particles hitting the very edge of a slit and going astray). For the second plate the experimenter will only notice that there will be proportionally more bright dots, which makes sense, for longer exposure time means more time for the source to shoot more particles. However, as the experimenter develops more and more plates, it starts to become clear that there are regions of the plate where it is more probable to find a bright spot, and other regions where it is less probable to find a bright spot. Apparently, no matter how long the exposure time is, there are equally spaced areas where NO bright point appears. This pattern is PRECISELY equivalent to the pattern formed by the interference of a wave crossing the two slits.
THIS kind of experiment indeed shows the wave-particle duality (note that the pattern does not appear fainter when the source is dimmer), and usually it is to this kind of experiment people refer when discussing the fundamental mystery of Quantum Mechanics.
 
  • #41


Cthugha said:
Well, in principle they can via two photon absorption, but this process is usually not very likely as it is a nonlinear effect. Those electronic excitation processes happen very fast, somewhere between the attosecond and femtosecond range, so two photons need to "hit" the electron in a very short time window somewhere between 10^{-15} and 10^{-18} seconds.

In an hypothetical example you now have a monochromatic light source of 10 mW power (this is already more than one of the HeNe lasers in my lab has), which emits photons of 1 eV energy (somewhere in the infrared), but you need exactly 2 eV to liberate the electrons. A quick calculation shows, that there are about 6,2 * 10^{16} photons emitted per second, so the number of photons arriving within a femtosecond is about 60 photons. Now you also have to consider, that the time window is smaller than a femtosecond, the beam will be very large compared to the cross section of the electron, conservation rules apply (spin, for example) and by far not every photon will interact with the electron. So even with a VERY optimistic estimate, you will have a few thousand two photon absorptions per second and a few liberated electrons.

So the reason, why the high energy photons work better, is that you have to compare the number of photons arriving within a certain time window (high energy case) to the number of photon pairs arriving within a certain time window (low energy case). So unless you go to very, very high intensities, liberating electrons with low energy photons won't work.

Thanks, that's a perfect and clear answer. So the photons must actualy come into contact with the electron and that it's very unlikely that two photons would strikes an electron at once, or ever close enough together. Therefore a single photon must contain all the energy needed to get the job done.

So, puting this together, the photo electric effect proves the existence of photons because it shows that it only matters how powerful any given photon is and not how many of them you focus into the beam. However if light had been waves, then it would never miss those electrons, in which case both intensity and frequency would be a factor in the photo-electric effect, and not freqeuency alone.
 
  • #42


Someone said in another thread that they tried the double slit experiment at home and then, maybe joking, wanted to add a photon detector to see the wave function collapse first hand. Is there a practical way to do this at home or does it require fancy, expensive equipment?
 

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