kajzlik
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Hello guys, suppose we have an eigenvalue problem
<br /> \left\{<br /> \begin{array}{ll}<br /> u'' + λu = 0, \quad x \in (0,\pi) \\<br /> u(0)=0 \quad \\<br /> \left( \int_0^\pi \! {(u^+)}^2 \, \mathrm{d}x \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} = \left( \int_0^\pi \! {(u^-)}^4 \, \mathrm{d}x \right)^\frac {1}{4}<br /> <br /> \end{array}<br /> \right.<br /> <br />
where u^+, u^- is positive, negative part of function respectively.
I'm having troubles with case when λ> 0. Is there any way how to simplify or express these parts of function ? I've tried some (analytic) brute force methods, tried to simplify that first but still no valuable result.
Thanks
<br /> \left\{<br /> \begin{array}{ll}<br /> u'' + λu = 0, \quad x \in (0,\pi) \\<br /> u(0)=0 \quad \\<br /> \left( \int_0^\pi \! {(u^+)}^2 \, \mathrm{d}x \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} = \left( \int_0^\pi \! {(u^-)}^4 \, \mathrm{d}x \right)^\frac {1}{4}<br /> <br /> \end{array}<br /> \right.<br /> <br />
where u^+, u^- is positive, negative part of function respectively.
I'm having troubles with case when λ> 0. Is there any way how to simplify or express these parts of function ? I've tried some (analytic) brute force methods, tried to simplify that first but still no valuable result.
Thanks