Electric potential at a distance r from a non-conducting sphere

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the electric potential at a distance r from a non-conducting sphere with a non-uniform charge density. For the case where r is greater than a, the potential is derived by integrating the electric field from infinity to r, resulting in V=(k*B*pi*(a^4))/(r). For the case where 0<r<a, participants clarify that the integration should be done from infinity to the outer edge of the sphere and then from the edge to r, ensuring to account for the negative sign. The total charge of the sphere is determined to be Q=B*pi*a^4, confirming the correctness of the initial potential calculation. The conversation emphasizes the importance of proper integration bounds and understanding the behavior of the electric field in both regions.
Wheelwalker
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Homework Statement



Determine the electric potential at a distance r from a non-conducting sphere of radius a and non-uniform charge density Br (where B is a constant) for each of the following cases:

i. r>a
ii. 0<r<a

Homework Equations



Electric field outside of the sphere: (k*B*pi*(a^4))/(r^2)
Electric field inside of the sphere: (k*pi*B*r^2)
V=-integral(E*dl)


The Attempt at a Solution



For part 1, I integrated in from infinity to r to determine the potential as a function of r...

V=-integral from infinity to r of (k*B*pi*(a^4))/(r^2) dr and ended up with the answer V=(k*B*pi*(a^4))/(r).

I'm not sure if my bounds were correct for that integral. I'm fairly certain I need to integrate in from infinity assuming the potential is zero at infinity.

Also, for the next part I am not sure if I need to integrate in from infinity to the outer edge of the sphere, then add that to another integral inside of the sphere (I remember doing that with conducting concentric spheres). Any help would be much appreciated. I am not looking for an answer, just some help and/or pointers. I am mainly concerned about my bounds and whether or not I need to integrate twice for the second part. Thanks!
 
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Yes, just take the integral of the electric field outside the sphere from ∞ to a, and add the integral of the electric field inside the sphere from a to r and don't forget the overall minus sign.
 
Okay, got it. Thank you for the quick and helpful reply. It's much appreciated!
 
Actually, I have one more question. For the first part, I took the integral from ∞ to r. Is that incorrect? If I take the integral from ∞ to a, I get a constant number. Adding this integral to the integral of the electric field inside the sphere should work fine for the second part of the question but for the first, there won't be any change in potential outside of the sphere. Is that right?
 
Wheelwalker said:
... but for the first, there won't be any change in potential outside of the sphere. Is that right?
That would be true if the electric field outside the sphere were zero, which of course, is not true.
 
Yeah, that's what I was thinking. So that must be incorrect. Would it be correct to integrate in from infinity to r instead of a then? That's what I originally did and came up with the answer (k*B*pi*(a^4))/(r).
 
Wheelwalker said:
Yeah, that's what I was thinking. So that must be incorrect. Would it be correct to integrate in from infinity to r instead of a then? That's what I originally did and came up with the answer (k*B*pi*(a^4))/(r).
I could do the integration --- but I'm too lazy.

What's the total charge of the sphere ?

Added in Edit:

OK, I integrated to find the total charge on the sphere.

It's Q=B\,\pi\,a^4\ .

So, your answer looks like it's correct !
 
Last edited:
Thanks Sammy!
 
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