TrickyDicky
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How exactly is the EM field tensor related to the proper orthochronous Lorentz group?
I mean the specific representation of the group, why is it the direct sum of the (1,0) and (0,1) irreps, is it related with the tensor being a 2-form and its parity invariance?Matterwave said:What do you mean by "related". As a rank 2 tensor, the Faraday tensor transforms under a proper orthochronous Lorentz transformation just like any other rank 2 tensor:
$$F_{\mu'\nu'}=\Lambda^\sigma_{~\mu'}\Lambda^\tau_{~\nu'}F_{\sigma\tau}$$