Electron in a magnetic field and angular momentum

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An electron moving in a magnetic field of 1 mT has an angular momentum of 4.00E-25 kg m^2/s. The relevant equations include F=qvB and r=mv/qB, which relate force, velocity, magnetic field, and radius. The discussion focuses on deriving velocity and radius from angular momentum, with the conclusion that using the equation √(qB(vr)/m) simplifies the process. The participant successfully calculated the values for radius and velocity, confirming their results aligned with the expected outcomes. This method is considered efficient for solving similar problems in physics.
Munky
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Homework Statement


An electron moves in a circular path perpendicular to a constant magnetic field with a magnitude of 1 mT. The angular momentum of the electron about the center of the circle is 4.00E-25 kg m^2/s.

m= 9.109E-31 kg
q= 1.602E-19 C
B= 0.001 T

I also know that the answer is

r = 5.00 cm
v = 8.78E6 m/s


Homework Equations



F=qvB
or
qvB=mv^2/r
or
r=mv/qB


The Attempt at a Solution



My problem is that I know I need to get either F, v, or r from the angular momentum, but I cannot find any way to do that. If I were able to solve for one of those variables, the other two are simple to figure. I have another similar question where I need to know how to do this... and for the life of me I can't figure it out.

Thanks for any help you can be.

Munky
 
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Welcome to PF!

Hi Munky ! Welcome to PF!
Munky said:
qvB=mv^2/r

ok … you know q B m and rv …

and your equation has q B m v and r …

just fiddle around with it! :smile:
 
Thanks for the response, cryptic as it seemed at first, it helped.

I don't know if I was clear, but I was supposed to solve for v and r, and wasn't sure how momentum fit in.

Your response was enough to make me look a little further, knowing that I had what I needed. I found that angular momentum "l" is the cross product of radius and mass times velocity. The cross product, in this case, is a non-issue because the sin theta = 1.

I did the resulting math and got the same (within rounding error) result as I got multiplying the answers (r times v).

Finally, the square root of qB(vr)/m gave me my velocity... from which getting radius is no problem.

Is that the easiest way to do this? It's been about 8 years since I took physics 1, and some of the stuff I should "know," I simply don't.

Thanks for your reply and the welcome.

Munky
 
Munky said:
Thanks for the response, cryptic as it seemed at first, it helped.

We try not to give away too much, so that you can get the answer yourself! :biggrin:
Finally, the square root of qB(vr)/m gave me my velocity... from which getting radius is no problem.

Is that the easiest way to do this?

Yup … √qB(vr)/m was what I meant … definitely the easiest way. :smile:
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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