Looking at the attachment, I see that the scalar potential coming from the D-term of the Higgs sector is given as shown in (8.14b).(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

However shouldn't there also be a field ξ as in Fayet-Iliopoulos model?

[itex] V_{D}= \frac{1}{2} |ξ+ g \phi^{*} \phi|^{2}[/itex]

Is there a reason I don't see, that allows us to set ξ=0?

Also here:

http://staff.science.uva.nl/~jdeboer/education/projects/projects/mscthesis.pdf

page 34 as you scroll down, equation 1.4.12 (or even under 1.4.10) the D term for the potential are given differently...

Also a second question, the chiral Higgs scalar sfields as denoted in the attachment... what happens to the [itex]V[/itex] vector sfield in [itex] S^{\dagger} e^{V} S=S^{\dagger} e^{\frac{1}{2}g_{2}T^{a}V^{a}-2i \theta \sigma^{\mu} \bar{\theta} \partial_{\mu}} S |_{Left}[/itex]?

(the attachment is from Howard Baer, Xerxes Tata- Weak scale Supersymmetry (2006), chapter 8.2)

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# Electroweak Breaking MSSM- D-term pot. question

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