Elementary Measure Theory Question

ntsivanidis
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Hey guys, below is a small question from introductory measure theory. Maybe be completely wrong on this, so if you could point me in the right direction I'd really appreciate it.

Claim: Let B=\mathbb{Q} \cap [0,1] and \{I_k\}_{k=1}^n be a finite open cover for B. Then \sum_{k=1}^n m^*(I_k) \geq 1

Proof: Let \ B = \{q_k\}_{k=1}^\infty.Since {I_k\}_{k=1}^n is a finite cover, there must be at least one j \in \{1,\dots,n\} s.t. I_j contains infinitely many elements of B.Fix \varepsilon > 0. WLOG, WMA I_k=(q_k - \frac{\varepsilon}{2(n-1)}, q_k + \frac{\varepsilon}{2(n-1)}) \ni q_k \ \forall \ k \neq j. Then \sum_{k=1}^n m^*(I_k) = \sum_{k\neq j} m^*(I_k) + m^*(I_j)=\varepsilon + m^*(I_j) \geq m^*(I_j)=1 since m^*([0,1]\backslash \mathbb{Q})=1 \ \Box
 

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Although the statement is correct, the 'WLOG WMA' part of the proof is too sweepy. You must provide details if the proof is to sound rigorous.
 
Thanks! Along what lines should I proceed? It's very shaky from that point onwards and I'm stumped for something more concrete. If you could describe a sketch, that would be great. Cheers
 
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