EM wave right above and right below the conducting surface.

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the behavior of electromagnetic (EM) waves at the boundary between a good conductor and air. Above the conducting surface (z=0^-), the electric field E and magnetic field B are perpendicular, with E decaying exponentially in air. Below the surface (z=0^+), while E remains continuous, the magnetic field B is affected by the complex impedance of the conductor, leading to a phase shift. The confusion arises from the expectation that B should remain perpendicular to E inside the conductor, despite the phase shift caused by the complex impedance. Ultimately, it is clarified that even in a good conductor, the EM wave remains transverse electromagnetic (TEM), with E and B still perpendicular but out of phase due to the conductor's properties.
yungman
Messages
5,741
Reaction score
294
Assume a infinite depth good conductor block with width in y and length in x direction. Boundary is at z=0 and air is at z=-ve and conductor at z=+ve. Let a voltage apply across the length of the block in x direction so a current density established in +ve x direction. We want to look at the EM at the boundary just above and just below the surface.

1) We know at z=0^-(in air):

\tilde{E_-}(z) = \hat x E_0 e^{-\alpha z} e^{-j\beta z} \;\hbox { and }\; \tilde B = \frac 1 {\eta_0} \hat z \times \vec E_-(z)\;=\; \hat y \frac {\vec E_-(z)}{\eta_0}

In air, H is perpendicular to E only because \eta_0 is real and don't have a phase shift.





2) We know tangential E continuous cross boundary therefore at z=0^+(in conductor):

\tilde{E_+}(z) = \hat x E_0 e^{-\alpha z} e^{-j\beta z} \;\hbox { and }\; \tilde B_+ = \frac 1 {\eta_c} \hat z \times \vec E_-(z)

Here \eta_c is complex and therefore has a phase shift, actually the phase angle is \theta=45^0. This mean B is no longer perpendicular to E even though B also propagate in z direction.





The problem is the book still give:

\tilde B_+(z)=\hat y \frac {\tilde E_+(z)}{\eta_c}

This mean B is still perpendicular to E inside the good conductor. I don't understand this. Please help me.

Thanks
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
I think I understand it now. I just want to verify this:

Even in good conductor, the EM wave is still TEM where E and B are perpendicular to each other and both perpendicular to the direction of propagation. The difference compare to the TEM in lossless free space is the E and B are out of phase in good conductor because \eta_c of metal is complex. In free space that is lossless, \eta_0 is 377 ohm and is real, so E and B are in phase.

Can anyone verify this
 
Thread 'Motional EMF in Faraday disc, co-rotating magnet axial mean flux'
So here is the motional EMF formula. Now I understand the standard Faraday paradox that an axis symmetric field source (like a speaker motor ring magnet) has a magnetic field that is frame invariant under rotation around axis of symmetry. The field is static whether you rotate the magnet or not. So far so good. What puzzles me is this , there is a term average magnetic flux or "azimuthal mean" , this term describes the average magnetic field through the area swept by the rotating Faraday...
Back
Top