Equation of Motion: Understand Last Sentence

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the interpretation of a statement regarding the determination of a system's motion in physics. It emphasizes that while specifying coordinates and velocities can define a system's state, the accelerations also depend on the forces acting on the system. The Lagrangian framework is highlighted, where the action is derived from the difference between kinetic and potential energies, allowing for the calculation of equations of motion. Some participants argue that the statement is accurate, provided that all forces are known, while others suggest it oversimplifies the relationship between motion and forces. Ultimately, the consensus is that accelerations can be uniquely defined under certain conditions, particularly when parameters are independent of time.
rasensuriken
Messages
10
Reaction score
0
I came across this from a book saying that:
If all the co-ordinates and velocities are simultaneously specified, it is known from experience that the state of the system is completely determined and that its subsequent motion can, in principle, be calculated. Mathematically, this means that, if all the co-ordinates q and velocities dq/dt are given at some instant, the accelerations d^{2}q/dt^{2} at that instant are uniquely defined.

May i know what is meant by the last sentence?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
This is an example of the application of Lagrangian physics. In Lagrangian physics, you can specify the Lagrangian of the system (the difference between the kinetic and potential energies) as a function of position, velocity and time. The integral of the Lagrangian over time is called the action. The equations of motion for a classical system are ones which make the action stationary. This can be solved in a variety of ways.

The associated wiki: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Action_(physics )

So yes, the statement is true but there is a bit of work that you have to do to get the equations of motion out of it. I'm sure you could probably do it also via a different means, maybe using Hamiltonian physics but I am not very familiar with working with Hamiltonians (as horrible as that fact may be) outside of quantum physics.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
rasensuriken said:
...Mathematically, this means that, if all the co-ordinates q and velocities dq/dt are given at some instant, the accelerations d^{2}q/dt^{2} at that instant are uniquely defined.

May i know what is meant by the last sentence?

It is a somewhat wrong statement. The accelerations are also determined with forces that should be given too. The external and inter-particle forces depend on coordinates and velocities, so if the force dependencies are known, the future of the system is calculated from the initial data and the given forces. It is just like for one-particle system: you specify the initial data and a force to calculate the time dependence of your variables.
 
hmm...but i think the book should be more or less accurate...i quote this from the book "Mechanics" by L.D.Landau...i do have the same opinion as yours when i am reading this...But considering Born2bwire's i think the statement is alright, since the Lagrangian is T-U, in which the potential energy also being taken care of (i.e. if U depend on the position then it's being taken into account) =). Thanks everyone =)
 
Last edited:
rasensuriken said:
... Mathematically, this means that, if all the co-ordinates q and velocities dq/dt are given at some instant, the accelerations d2q/dt2 at that instant are uniquely defined. May i know what is meant by the last sentence?
This is correct as long as the accelerations are independent of time. If every parameter is independent of time, then the motion is uniquely defined.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top