Are the Metrics \rho^{(p)} and \rho^{(q)} Equivalent on \Re^n?

In summary, we showed that for p,q>=1, p!=q, the metrics \rho^{(p)} and \rho^{(q)} generate the same topology on \Re^n. This was done by showing that a set is open in (\Re^n,\rho^{(p)}) iff it is open in (\Re^n,\rho^{(q)}), and by showing that for any x,y\in\Re^n there exists c,C>0 such that c\rho^{(p)}(x,y)\leq\rho^{(q)}(x,y)\leq C\rho^{(p)}(x,y). This was achieved by using Holder's inequality and setting c=1 and C=n^{
  • #1
jjou
64
0
Show equivalence of family of metrics on [tex]\Re^n[/tex]: [tex]\rho^{(p)}:(x,y)\rightleftharpoons(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|^p)^{\frac{1}{p}}[/tex] for [tex]p\geq1[/tex]
The attempt at a solution
Want to show for [tex]p,q\geq1[/tex], [tex]p\neq q[/tex], that [tex]\rho^{(p)}[/tex] and [tex]\rho^{(q)}[/tex] generate the same topology. I tried two methods:

1. Show that a set is open in [tex](\Re^n,\rho^{(p)})[/tex] iff it is open in [tex](\Re^n,\rho^{(q)})[/tex].

2. Show that the bases are equivalent (an element of the base of the topology generated by [tex]\rho^{(p)}[/tex] is a union of elements of the base of the topology generated by [tex]\rho^{(q)}[/tex].

Both reduced down to considering, for a fixed [tex]x_0\in\Re^n[/tex] and [tex]r_p[/tex], the set [tex]B_{r_p}(x_0)=\{x\in\Re^n|\rho^{(p)}(x,x_0)<r_p\}[/tex]. Then fix a point [tex]y\in B_{r_p}(x_0)[/tex] and show there exists a [tex]r_q[/tex] such that:

for any u satisfying [tex]\rho^{(q)}(u,y)<r_q[/tex], u also satisfies [tex]\rho^{(p)}(u,y)<r_p-\rho^{(p)}(y,x_0)[/tex]. Ie. that any point in [tex]B_{r_q}(y)[/tex] is also in [tex]B_{r_p}(x_0)[/tex].

Also tried to get ideas by simplifying problem to [tex]\Re^2[/tex] with p=1 and p=2. Was not very illuminating since I was still stuck working with the same expressions.

----

Another method is to show that for any [tex]x,y\in\Re^n[/tex] there exists [tex]c,C>0[/tex] such that:
[tex]c\rho^{(p)}(x,y)\leq\rho^{(q)}(x,y)\leq C\rho^{(p)}(x,y)[/tex]
Ie. that:
[tex]c(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|^p)^{\frac{1}{p}}\leq(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|^q)^{\frac{1}{q}}\leq C(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|^p)^{\frac{1}{p}}[/tex]

I didn't know whether to attempt to show both inequalities at once or separately, but either way, I'm not sure how to manipulate all the exponents and absolute values...

Please help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Each of these metrics comes from a norm, and as such, they are all equivalent because R^n is finite dimensional.

If you don't know this, then I suggest you prove each of the metrics is equivalent to [itex]\rho^{(1)}[/itex]. Holder's inequality will be useful here, because we can write (for p>1):

[tex]\sum |x_i - y_i| \leq \left(\sum |x_i - y_i|^p\right)^{1/p} \left(\sum 1^{p/(p-1)}\right)^{(p-1)/p}[/tex]
 
  • #3
Thank you so much! Very simple solution using Holder's, if I'm not wrong...

Using [tex]c(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|^p)^{\frac{1}{p}}\leq(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|^q)^{\frac{1}{q}}\leq C(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|^p)^{\frac{1}{p}}[/tex], take
c=1 and [tex]C=\left(\sum 1^{p/(p-1)}\right)^{(p-1)/p}=n^{(p-1)/p}[/tex].

The first inequality holds iff [tex]c^p(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|^p)\leq(\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y_i|)^p[/tex] which is obviously true by expansion.

The second inequality fulfills Holder's.

Yes?

Again, thanks so much! :)
 
  • #4
Looks good (as long as that 'q' is actually a '1'!). :smile:
 

What is the concept of "Equivalence of Metrics"?

The concept of "Equivalence of Metrics" refers to the idea that different measurements or assessments of the same phenomenon should produce similar results. This allows for comparisons to be made across different metrics and ensures that the data collected is consistent and reliable.

Why is "Equivalence of Metrics" important in scientific research?

"Equivalence of Metrics" is important in scientific research because it allows for the validation and replication of results. If different metrics produce similar outcomes, it increases the confidence in the findings and strengthens the overall conclusions drawn from the data.

What are some factors that can affect the equivalence of metrics?

Some factors that can affect the equivalence of metrics include the methods used to collect data, the instruments or tools used for measurement, the sample size, and the quality of the data. It is important to carefully consider and control for these factors in order to ensure equivalence across different metrics.

How can scientists ensure equivalence of metrics in their research?

Scientists can ensure equivalence of metrics by carefully selecting and validating the measurement tools and methods used in their research. They can also conduct pilot studies to test the reliability and consistency of the metrics before collecting data on a larger scale. Additionally, using multiple metrics to measure the same phenomenon can help to ensure equivalence.

What are the potential limitations of "Equivalence of Metrics" in scientific research?

One potential limitation of "Equivalence of Metrics" is that it may not always be possible to achieve complete equivalence across all metrics. This is particularly true when studying complex and multifaceted phenomena. Additionally, different metrics may be appropriate for different research questions or populations, making it difficult to compare results across studies.

Similar threads

  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
5
Views
620
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
5
Views
290
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
4
Views
694
Replies
5
Views
388
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
10
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
631
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
2
Views
711
Replies
0
Views
358
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
552
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
1K
Back
Top