lttlbbygurl
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We have a equivalence relation on [0,1] × [0,1] by letting (x_0, y_0) ~ (x_1, y_1) if and only if x_0 = x_1 > 0... then how do we show that X\ ~is not a Hausdorff space ?
g_edgar said:Wait, so (0,0) is not equivalent to itself? Then it's not an equivalence relation?