gulsen
- 215
- 0
Yup. How can I solve:
[tex]d^2\theta / dt^2 = -(g/L)sin(\theta)[/tex]
[tex]d^2\theta / dt^2 = -(g/L)sin(\theta)[/tex]
The discussion revolves around the analysis of the motion of a pendulum described by a second-order differential equation. Participants explore the mathematical solutions, including the use of elliptic integrals and transformations, to derive expressions for the pendulum's period and behavior under various conditions. The conversation includes technical reasoning, derivations, and challenges related to the nature of the solutions.
Participants express differing views on the nature of the solutions and their elegance. There is no consensus on the existence of an exact solution for the period of the pendulum under certain conditions, and the discussion remains unresolved regarding the implications of k=0 in relation to the pendulum's motion.
Some participants note the dependence on specific transformations and the limitations of the solutions when considering different initial conditions or maximum displacements. The discussion also highlights the complexity of integrating the equations involved.
Hootenanny said:Saltydog,
I can follow your derivation of
[tex]\theta(t)=2\text{ArcSin}\left[k\text{JacobiSN}\left(t\sqrt{g/L},k\right)\right],\;k=sin(\omega/2)[/tex]
but I was wondering if there was anyway you could find an exact solution for the period of a pendulum when [itex]\sin\theta \not\approx \theta[/itex]
Thanks
Hootenanny said:Sorry, I'm sure this is going to sound really stupid but which three transformation rules?
Hootenanny said:I'm just thinking that because just because k = 0 doesn't have to mean that the pendulum is at rest:
[tex]k= \sin [\omega/2][/tex]
[itex]\sin = 0[/itex] when [itex]\omega/2 = 0[/itex].
[tex]\omega = \frac{v}{r}[/tex]
So when k = 0 could it just indicate that the pendulum is at its maximum displacement because v = 0??
arildno said:I find that simpler approximations like this is often more illustrative than god-awful ugly "exact" formulae.
saltydog said:They're not ugly, they're beautiful but not to Engineers.![]()

arildno said:By standard, if tedious, techniques, we get the following approximate expression for the period T in the pendulum problem:
[tex]T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega}, \omega=(1-\frac{\theta_{0}^{2}}{16}+\frac{\theta_{0}^{4}}{3072})\sqrt{\frac{g}{L}}[/tex]
This agrees well with Mathematica's answer when the initial angle [itex]\theta_{0}=\frac{\pi}{4}[/itex]
The associated approximation for the displacement angle as a function of time should be:
[tex]\theta(t)=\theta_{0}\cos\omega{t}+\frac{\theta_{0}^{3}}{192}(\cos\omega{t}-\cos{3\omega{t}})+\frac{\theta_{0}^{5}}{384000}(107\cos\omega{t}-125\cos{3\omega{t}}+18\cos{5\omega{t}})[/tex]
I find that simpler approximations like this is often more illustrative than god-awful ugly "exact" formulae.