Find E field for a ring of charge - Charge per length non-uniform

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the electric field at all points on the z-axis for a ring of charge with a non-uniform charge distribution defined by \(\lambda(\phi) = \lambda_0 \cos(\phi)\). Participants explore the implications of this non-uniformity compared to a uniform charge distribution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of the electric field components and the reasoning behind why certain components vanish due to symmetry. Questions arise about the treatment of the non-uniform charge distribution in the integration process.

Discussion Status

Some participants express confidence in the calculations, while others seek clarification on the reasoning behind the results, particularly regarding the symmetry of the electric field components. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of the non-uniform charge distribution.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenge of visualizing the electric field's behavior due to the non-uniform charge distribution and the symmetry involved in the problem setup.

venkman1080
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I have to find the E field at all points on the z-axis for a ring of charge with radius = R. \lambda(\phi) = \lambda_0 cos(\phi) where 0 \leq \phi < 2 \pi

I know how to do the problem when it is the charge per length is uniform but when I do the calculation for the non-uniform case I get E = \frac{-kR\lambda_0\pi}{(R^2 + z^2)^{3/2}} \hat{i} The integral for the j_hat part goes to zero because sin(phi)cos(phi) from 0 to 2 Pi and the z_hat part also goes to zero because the integral of cos(phi) from 0 to 2 Pi is zero.

I think my calculations are right, but I'm not totally sure. I just find it strange that its only in the i_hat. Any help/suggestions is greatly appreciated.

I used the formulas
<br /> E = \int_{charge} \frac{kdq}{r_\delta ^2}\hat{r_\delta}<br />

<br /> r_\delta = -R cos(\phi)\hat{i} - R sin(\phi)\hat{j} + x\hat{k}<br />

<br /> \hat{r_\delta} = \frac{-R cos(\phi)\hat{i}}{\sqrt{R^2 + z^2}}<br /> - \frac{R sin(\phi)\hat{j}}{\sqrt{R^2 + z^2}} + \frac{z\hat{k}}{\sqrt{R^2 + z^2}}<br />

<br /> dq = \lambda Rd\phi<br />
Sorry if there is any typos with the latex formulas. I kept doing the preview post and it wouldn't change what I had entered the first time.
 
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venkman1080 said:
The integral for the j_hat part goes to zero because sin(phi)cos(phi) from 0 to 2 Pi and the z_hat part also goes to zero because the integral of cos(phi) from 0 to 2 Pi is zero.

Sounds like you're multiplying every component by an extra factor of \cos\phi before integrating...why are you doing that?
 
I thought because \lambda(\phi) = \lambda_0 cos(\phi) so when you do the integral the cos doesn't pull out.
 
venkman1080 said:
I thought because \lambda(\phi) = \lambda_0 cos(\phi) so when you do the integral the cos doesn't pull out.

Yes, I overlooked that. Your answer looks good to me.
 
I'm just having trouble visualizing why the answer is only in the i_hat. Can you help clarify this for me?
 
Think symmetry. For every spot on the ring, there's a spot on the opposite side with the same charge in magnitude but with opposite sign.
 

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