Finding an upper-estimate for a sequence.

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around finding a tight upper estimate for a sequence, specifically aiming to show that the limit of the sequence converges to 1. Participants explore various mathematical approaches, including the use of the sandwich theorem, comparisons with other sequences, and the application of l'Hôpital's Rule.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks a tighter upper estimate than the sequence converging to ##e##, proposing the use of the sandwich theorem.
  • Another participant suggests comparing the sequence to ##\left(1+\frac{1}{mn}\right)^n## for natural numbers m as a potential upper estimate.
  • A later reply proposes using l'Hôpital's Rule to show that the limit of the sequence as n approaches infinity is 1, arguing against the need for sandwiching.
  • Participants discuss the possibility of showing that the sequence is decreasing and that the limit infimum of the middle sequence is 1.
  • One participant inquires about inequalities that provide upper estimates for ##(1+x)^n## in contrast to Bernoulli's inequality.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the best approach to demonstrate the limit of the sequence, with some favoring sandwiching and others advocating for direct methods. No consensus is reached on a single method or estimate.

Contextual Notes

Participants acknowledge the complexity of the problem, with some methods potentially depending on specific assumptions or definitions related to the sequence.

Seydlitz
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Hi guys,

I'm on the verge of sandwiching this particular sequence but I need rather tight upper estimate to trap the limit to 1. I can only manage to get the sequence that converges to ##e## as the current upper estimate. Is it possible to get tighter bound than that?

<br /> \\<br /> 1 + \frac{1}{n^2} \le \left(1+\frac{1}{n^3}\right)^{n} \le \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n<br />

Alternatively, I can maybe show that the sequence is decreasing and that the limit infimum of the middle sequence is 1. But it might not be as simple as using sandwich theorem.

Thank You

P.S: In general, is there any inequality that shows the upper-estimate of ##(1+x)^n## in contrast to the Bernoulli's inequality that shows the lower-estimate of it?
 
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You can compare it to ##\left(1+\frac{1}{mn}\right)^n## for every natural number m.
 
Seydlitz said:
Hi guys,

I'm on the verge of sandwiching this particular sequence but I need rather tight upper estimate to trap the limit to 1. I can only manage to get the sequence that converges to ##e## as the current upper estimate. Is it possible to get tighter bound than that?

<br /> \\<br /> 1 + \frac{1}{n^2} \le \left(1+\frac{1}{n^3}\right)^{n} \le \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n<br />

Alternatively, I can maybe show that the sequence is decreasing and that the limit infimum of the middle sequence is 1. But it might not be as simple as using sandwich theorem.

Alternatively, you can show by l'Hopital's Rule that \lim_{n \to \infty} n\log\left(1 + \frac1{n^3}\right) = \lim_{x \to 0^{+}} \frac{\log(1 + x^3)}{x} = 0.
 
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If all you want is to show that

##\lim_{n\to \infty} (1+\frac 1{n^3})^n=1##,

then I wouldn't use sandwiching and estimates, but a direct approach:

##(1+\frac 1{n^3})^n=((1+\frac 1{n^3})^{n^3})^{1/n^2}\to e^0=1##, as ##n\to\infty##.
 
Ok guys thanks for the input. I'll try the sandwiching the guys first.
 

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