Finding or estimating confidence interval for populaion mean

Rasalhague
Messages
1,383
Reaction score
2
From Koosis, I pieced together the following algorithm.

Is sigma known?

Yes? Then calculate the exact confidence interval using a normal distribution to estimate that of the sample means, with mean = the mean of sample means = the mean of the population, \mu_{\overline{x}}=\mu, and standard deviation \sigma_{\overline{x}}=\sigma/\sqrt{n}.

No? Then is the poplation normal?

Yes? Then (a) estimate the confidence interval with a Student's t distribution for the sample means, using degrees of freedom dof = n - 1, and standard deviation s_{\overline{x}}=s\sqrt{n}, or (b) for a slightly inferior result, and only if n\geq 30, estimate the confidence interval using the normal distribution with mean \mu_{\overline{x}}=\mu, and standard deviation s_{\overline{x}}=s\sqrt{n}.

No or don't know? Then is n\geq 30?

Yes? Then estimate the confidence interval, using a normal distribution to estimate that of the sample means, with mean \mu_{\overline{x}}=\mu, and standard deviation s_{\overline{x}}=s\sqrt{n}.

No? Then can't do.

*

But Sanders has the following, somewhat different algorithm.

Is n\geq 30?

Yes? Then use z values in computations.

No? Then are population values known to be normally distributed?

Yes? If the population standard deviation of the population is known, use z values in computations. Otherwise, use t values in computations.

No? Cannot use z or t values in computations.

*

Any comments on which is the best procedure? Actually Koosis presented the z test first, as if he, like Sanders, assumed that one would choose this over the t test wherever possible, even though he said it wasn't as good when both choices were possible. I wonder why z beats t in that case? Is it because the difference in accuracy is negligible then and the computations for t potentially more time consuming than those for z? (And if so, is this still the case with current software; both books are a few years old.)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi Rasalhague! :smile:

The more information you use the more accurate the result.

If you know sigma beforehand, you have to use it to get the most accurate results.
However, in practice, sigma is often not known, so an estimate has to be made using a sample.
This is the reason the t-distribution has been thought up in the first place.

Whenever you use a sample to estimate the population mean or the variance, there is a significant risk on a selective bias, so whenever possible this should be avoided.

If your n is large enough the difference between the normal distribution and the t-distribution becomes negligible, so you can choose.
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
22
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
4K
Replies
20
Views
2K
Back
Top