Finding the Fourier Series of a Given Function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the Fourier series of a piecewise function defined on the interval \(-\pi\) to \(\pi\). The function is zero for negative values and equals \(\cos(x)\) for positive values. Participants are exploring the implications of the Dirichlet conditions on convergence and the behavior of the series at specific points.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of Fourier coefficients and the convergence of the series at multiples of \(\pi\). There are questions about the relevance of the Dirichlet conditions and how they affect the convergence of the Fourier series. Some participants express confusion about specific values and the implications of the theorem regarding convergence.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants questioning the assumptions related to the Dirichlet conditions and the convergence behavior of the Fourier series. There is an exploration of specific points of interest, particularly at multiples of \(\pi\), and some participants are reconsidering their previous calculations.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of the Fourier series, including the need to evaluate limits at points of discontinuity and the implications of the Dirichlet theorem. There is a noted confusion regarding the convergence values and the calculations involved.

Ylle
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Homework Statement


Find the Fourier series of the function [tex]\[f\in {{C}_{st}}\][/tex] that in the interval ]-pi, pi[ is given by:

[tex]\[f\left( x \right)=\left\{ \begin{array}{*{35}{l}}<br /> 0for\,-\pi <x\le 0 \\<br /> \cos \left( x \right)for\,0<x<\pi \\<br /> \end{array} \right.\][/tex]

and give the sum of the series for x = p*pi for p [tex]$p\in Z$[/tex]

Homework Equations



[tex]\[{{a}_{k}}=\frac{1}{2\pi }\int_{-\pi }^{\pi }{f\left( x \right){{e}^{-ikx}}dxfor\,n\in Z}\][/tex]

and

[tex]\[{{f}_{N}}\left( x \right)=\sum\limits_{k=-N}^{N}{{{a}_{k}}{{e}^{ikx}}}\][/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution



Well, first I find the an simply by doing the integral, but only from 0 to pi, since it's 0 from -pi to 0.
After that I insert that in the second equation, and get the partial sum.
But it's the last bit I'm confused about. I know that p is element of Z, so therefor I should only check x for -1, 0 and 1 - I think. But am i done after I've done that, or...?

Well, the last bit confuses me a bit.
So anyone who can give me a hint ? :)


Regards
 
Last edited:
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Does your function satisfy the Dirichlet conditions? If so, to what does the FS converge. The multiples of pi are particularly interesting for the periodic extension of this function because...

You don't even need to calculate the FS to answer what the sum is going to converge to.
 
Ylle said:
Ehhhm, sorry for asking, but FS meaning ? :)
Fourier series
 
Argh, too slow to delete it... :(
 
LCKurtz said:
Does your function satisfy the Dirichlet conditions? If so, to what does the FS converge. The multiples of pi are particularly interesting for the periodic extension of this function because...

You don't even need to calculate the FS to answer what the sum is going to converge to.

Well, I guess it satisfies the Dirichlet conditions.
And it converge to 1/4 ? :S
 
Ylle said:
Well, I guess it satisfies the Dirichlet conditions.
And it converge to 1/4 ? :S

You didn't answer this (it isn't a rhetorical question):

The multiples of pi are particularly interesting for the periodic extension of this function because...

How did you get 1/4?

What does the Dirichlet theorem say about the convergence? You need to apply it to your question.
 
Because cos(k*pi) = 1 or -1 depending on what whole number k is ?

And the theorem states that:
If f satisfies Dirichlet conditions, then for all x, we have that the series obtained by plugging x into the Fourier series is convergent, and is given by

[tex]\sum_{n = -\infty}^\infty a_n e^{inx} = \frac{1}{2}(f(x+) + f(x-))[/tex],

where


[tex]f(x+) = \lim_{y \to x^+} f(y)[/tex]
[tex]f(x-) = \lim_{y \to x^-} f(y)[/tex]


And forget about the 1/4 :) Stupid integral I did.
 
Ylle said:
Because cos(k*pi) = 1 or -1 depending on what whole number k is ?

And the theorem states that:
If f satisfies Dirichlet conditions, then for all x, we have that the series obtained by plugging x into the Fourier series is convergent, and is given by

[tex]\sum_{n = -\infty}^\infty a_n e^{inx} = \frac{1}{2}(f(x+) + f(x-))[/tex],

where


[tex]f(x+) = \lim_{y \to x^+} f(y)[/tex]
[tex]f(x-) = \lim_{y \to x^-} f(y)[/tex]


And forget about the 1/4 :) Stupid integral I did.

It's not just that the cosine is +-1 at those points.

Why does the theorem state the sum of the series as

[tex]\frac {f(x^+)+ f(x^-)} 2[/tex]

instead of just saying f(x)? Does it equal f(x)? Why or why not? Again, what is different about the function at the n pi values of x?
 

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