Finding the Laplace Transformation of a Piecewise Function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the Laplace transformation of a piecewise function defined as f(t) = 0 for t < 0 and f(t) = t²e^(-at) for t ≥ 0. Participants are exploring the integration process involved in this transformation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to set up the integral for the Laplace transformation but express uncertainty about the integration process. There are discussions about variable substitution and the use of integration by parts. Some participants question the validity of certain steps in the integration.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing guidance on integration techniques and variable changes. There is a mix of attempts to clarify the integration process and suggestions for reviewing foundational concepts. No consensus has been reached on a specific method for solving the integral.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the original poster's use of a calculator may not be appropriate at this stage of learning. There is also mention of the need for a deeper understanding of integration methods, which may not be covered in the current coursework.

Northbysouth
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Homework Statement


Obtain the Laplace transformation of the function defined by

f(t) = 0 t<0

= t2e-at t>=0

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I'm a little unsure of what I'm doing here, so bear with me.

L {t2e-at} = ∫inf0 t2e-at dt

= ∫0inf t2e-(a+s)tdt

How do I integrate this? I tried using my TI-89 but it told me it is undefined. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

EDIT: The complete solution is required, which I think means I can't just take it out of the Laplace tables
 
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Northbysouth said:

Homework Statement


Obtain the Laplace transformation of the function defined by

f(t) = 0 t<0

= t2e-at t>=0


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I'm a little unsure of what I'm doing here, so bear with me.

L {t2e-at} = ∫inf0 t2e-at dt

= ∫0inf t2e-(a+s)tdt

How do I integrate this? I tried using my TI-89 but it told me it is undefined. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

EDIT: The complete solution is required, which I think means I can't just take it out of the Laplace tables

First of all: never, never write what you did above, which was
[tex]\int_0^{\infty} t^2 e^{-at} \, dt = \int_0^{\infty} t^2 e^{-(a+s)t} \, dt.[/tex]
This is only true if s= 0.

Anyway, for your final (correct) integral, change variables from t to x = (a+s)t (assuming s > -a).

I strongly recommend that you put away the TI-89 until after you have learned how to do these problems, or at least restrict its use to numerical computation.
 
Sorry, I missed out a part.

There should have been an e-st

But I don't understand your point about changing the variable from t to x. Could you explain further please?
 
Northbysouth said:
Sorry, I missed out a part.

There should have been an e-st

But I don't understand your point about changing the variable from t to x. Could you explain further please?

I assume you have taken integration already. If so, you already studied change-of-variable methods (or so I hope).

If you have not done integration yet you would need a longer explanation than I am prepared to give here: we would need to go over material that takes several weeks to present in coursework! However, such information is widely available in books and on-line.
 
Ray Vickson said:
I assume you have taken integration already. If so, you already studied change-of-variable methods (or so I hope).

If you have not done integration yet you would need a longer explanation than I am prepared to give here: we would need to go over material that takes several weeks to present in coursework! However, such information is widely available in books and on-line.

Yes, it's just integration. But the trick you really need to handle the t^2 factor is integration by parts. By all means, review integration.
 
It's much simpler to evaluate
[tex]\tilde{g}(s)=\int_0^{\infty} \mathrm{d} t \exp[-(a+s) t][/tex]
and then taking the 2nd derivative wrt. [itex]s[/itex]. It's very easy to see that
[tex]\tilde{f}(x)=\tilde{g}''(s).[/tex]
 

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