Thank you, insightful. I guess that means it is impossible to determine the velocity based only on values for Net Force and mass of an object.
So starting with a coefficient of kinetic friction between a block and the surface on which it is set, I can calculate the force that I must apply in order to generate a net force of zero and thus set the block into a motion of constant velocity.
For instance, if the block is 5kg and the coefficient of kinetic friction is .1, then [mue(Fn) = Ff] = [mue(mg) = Ff] = [.1(5*10) = 5N = Ff].
Thus, when I apply a force of 5N, the block will have a net force of 0 and thus be traveling with a constant velocity.
From here, I can not determine any information about the velocity of the block until I actually measure the distance that the block travels over a certain amount of time.
If my goal is to determine the velocity of a block of a given mass based on the coefficient of kinetic friction, then I need to make sure I have a stopwatch and tape measure in order to measure the distance the block travels over a certain amount of time.
Then, if my goal was to find velocity, I didn't need to know the coefficient of kinetic friction nor the mass of the block. I just need to know the distance traveled over the time interval traveled.
So, the net force on an object seems to be completely independent from the velocity it travels. For example, if an object is traveling in space, the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0, so the velocity of the object will be constant as long as there is no applied force. If the block is traveling at .001m/s, then as long as 0N of Force is applied, the block will continue traveling at that speed. If the block is traveling at 1000m/s, then as long as 0N of force is applied, the block will continue at that speed. Since there seems to be no specific applied force that generates a specific constant velocity based on the coefficient of kinetic friction, then it seems to make sense that it would not be possible to determine the blocks velocity by simply stating that 0N are being applied to it.
But when a force is being applied to the block when the block is on a table with a specific kinetic friction (.1), then there seems to be only one specific applied force (5N) that generates only 1 specific constant velocity. So it just feels like there is somehow more information from which to determine the speed that the block must be traveling when 5N is being applied to it.
From what I understand, Power = f*v = (f*d)/t , then in order to solve for velocity, I would have to already know distance and time, which seems to defeat the purpose of having to know the force in the first place. In addition, in the power formula, isn't the force variable referring to net force? If so, isn't the net force of the block in equilibrium 0N? Wouldn't that cancel out the entire formula anyhow? For example, [Power = (0N)*v = ((0N)*d)/t] = [0 = 0], no?