First time poster - Hard limit proof

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around sequences \( a_n \) and \( b_n \), where \( b_n \) is increasing and approaches positive infinity. The participants are tasked with proving that the limit of the ratio \( \frac{a_n}{b_n} \) equals a real number \( L \), given the limit of the difference quotient \( \frac{a_{n+1} - a_n}{b_{n+1} - b_n} \) approaches \( L \).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the limit definition and consider summing inequalities derived from the limit. There are attempts to connect the behavior of the sequences to the limit \( L \) and to clarify the relationship between the sequences and their limits.

Discussion Status

Several participants have provided insights and hints regarding the manipulation of inequalities and the behavior of the sequences as \( n \) approaches infinity. There is an ongoing exploration of whether certain terms converge to zero, with some participants questioning assumptions and clarifying definitions related to the sequences.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that \( b_n \) diverges to positive infinity, which is a crucial aspect of the problem. There is also mention of the need to consider the behavior of both \( a_N/b_M \) and \( b_N/b_M \) as \( M \) approaches infinity.

kenb1993
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Homework Statement



Suppose an and bn are sequences where bn is increasing and approaching positive infinity. Assume that lim n->∞ [ ( an+1 - an ) / ( bn+1 - bn) ]= L, where L is a real number. Prove that lim n->∞ [ an / bn ] = L.

Homework Equations



Limit theorems

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried making an argument with the basis that both sequences have the same number of terms, so L is the limit of (an+1)/(bn+1) and thus also (an/bn)
 
Last edited:
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kenb1993 said:

Homework Statement



Suppose an and bn are sequences where bn is increasing and approaching positive infinity. Assume that lim n->∞ [ ( an+1 - an ) / ( bn+1 - bn) ]= L, where L is a real number. Prove that lim n->∞ [ an / bn ] = L.
Given [itex]\epsilon > 0[/itex], we can find [itex]N \in \mathbb{N}[/itex] such that
[tex](L - \epsilon)(b_{n+1} - b_n) \leq a_{n+1}-a_n \leq (L + \epsilon)(b_{n+1} - b_n)[/tex]
for all [itex]n \geq N[/itex]. This is true by definition of the limit and by the fact that [itex]b_{n+1} > b_n[/itex].

Big hint: now try summing this inequality starting at [itex]n = N[/itex] up to some arbitrary value, say [itex]n = M[/itex]. Can you conclude anything as [itex]M \rightarrow \infty[/itex]?
 
So starting at a certain value N in the sequence, when you take the infinite sum of the inequality an and an+1 would tend to positive infinity along with bn+1 but I can't tie an argument together to actually prove the result.
 
kenb1993 said:

Homework Statement



Suppose an and bn are sequences where bn is increasing and approaching positive infinity. Assume that lim n->∞ [ ( an+1 - an ) / ( bn+1 - bn) ]= L, where L is a real number. Prove that lim n->∞ [ an / bn ] = L.

Homework Equations



Limit theorems

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried making an argument with the basis that both sequences have the same number of terms, so L is the limit of (an+1)/(bn+1) and thus also (an/bn)
That doesn't make any sense. Both sequences are infinite. That don't have a "number of terms". It is however, true that the limits of the two sequences you mention are the same but that really doesn't matter. The sequence (an+1- an)/(bn+1- bn[/b]) is NOT (an+1/bn+1)- (an/bn).
 
kenb1993 said:
So starting at a certain value N in the sequence, when you take the infinite sum of the inequality an and an+1 would tend to positive infinity along with bn+1 but I can't tie an argument together to actually prove the result.
Try writing out explicitly what you get if you sum the inequality in my previous post from [itex]n = N[/itex] to [itex]n = M-1[/itex]. Notice that all three terms will "telescope." What is the result? Write it out in detail.
 
After manipulation were left with (L−ϵ)(1-bN/bM) + aN/bM≤aM/bM≤(L+ϵ)(1-bN/bM) + aN/bM.

Then would bN/bM converge to zero and we are done?
 
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kenb1993 said:
After manipulation were left with (L−ϵ)(1-bN/bM) + aN/bM≤aM/bM≤(L+ϵ)(1-bN/bM) + aN/bM.

Then would bN/bM converge to zero and we are done?

Well, you need both [itex]b_N/b_M[/itex] and [itex]a_N/b_M[/itex] to converge to zero as [itex]M \rightarrow \infty[/itex]. Do they?
 
I think that's safe to assume without proof since bn is increasing. Thank for your help.
 
kenb1993 said:
I think that's safe to assume without proof since bn is increasing. Thank for your help.

It's not because [itex]b_n[/itex] is increasing. It's because [itex]b_n[/itex] is diverging to positive infinity (a fact you haven't used yet). Therefore [itex]1/b_n[/itex] is converging to...?
 
  • #10
Zero haha. Thanks. xn
 

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