Fluid Dynamics–Find pipe diameter,head loss & actual mean velocity.

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the theoretical diameter of a pipe, the head loss due to friction, and the actual mean velocity in a fluid dynamics context. Participants explore various equations and assumptions related to flow rates, Reynolds numbers, and friction losses in both laminar and turbulent flow scenarios.

Discussion Character

  • Homework-related
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant calculates the theoretical diameter of the pipe to be 120mm and assumes the mean velocity is roughly half the maximum velocity, leading to a mean velocity of 0.9m/s.
  • Another participant points out that the pressure drop equation used was for laminar flow, while the flow is actually turbulent based on the viscosity and density assumed.
  • A participant then applies the Darcy equation for turbulent flow to recalculate head loss, obtaining a new value of 0.143m of fluid, and seeks confirmation on the correctness of this method.
  • Another participant expresses a desire to understand the methods used in related questions, indicating a need for clarification on the approach taken.
  • A question is raised regarding the assumption that mean velocity is roughly half of the maximum velocity, with an inquiry into its applicability across different flow types (laminar, turbulent, transitional).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the need to use the appropriate equations for turbulent flow, but there is no consensus on the assumption regarding mean velocity or the methods for questions c) and d).

Contextual Notes

Participants mention using density and viscosity values from previous questions, which may not be explicitly provided in the current problem. There is also uncertainty regarding the assumptions made about flow characteristics and their implications for calculations.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be useful for students and practitioners in fluid dynamics, particularly those dealing with pipe flow calculations and the implications of flow regimes on head loss and velocity determinations.

Moranovich
Messages
10
Reaction score
0
1. Homework Statement
a) Calculate the theoretical diameter of pipe, nominal pipe diameter and mean velocity of nominal pipe diameter.

Maximum velocity = 1.8m/s
Q(vol. flow rate) = 0.01M^3-1

b) Find the Reynolds number for the process and then the head loss due to friction, state any assumptions made.

Please see attached diagram***

2. Homework Equations

D=sqrrt 4*q/Pi*U
q=volumetric flow rate
D=theoretical diameter

Q=V*A
V=Q/A
V=mean velocity
A=cros sect area
Q=vol. flow rate

Re=um*d*P/U
Where um=mean velocity
d = diameter of pipe
p = density
U = dynamic viscosity of fluid
Re= Reynolds number

Head loss due to friction Hf=32*U*L*um/P*g*d^2
U = dynamic viscosity of fluid
L length of pipe from the pump = 27m
P= density taken from previous questions I have done for oil= 860Kgm-3
g = gravity 9.81m/s
d = diameter of theoretical pipe =120mm

3. The Attempt at a Solution

I have worked out the theoretical diameter to be 120mm from the first equation assuming that the mean velocity is roughly half the maximum velocity ie 0.9m/s

So sqrrt 4*q/Pi*U = sqrrt 4*0.01/3.142*0.9=0.12m
Then choosing from the table nominal pipe 100mm the actual velocity for the nominal pipe is 1.27m/s using this eq.

Q=V*A
V=Q/A
V=0.01/7.85*10^-3=1.27m/s

To work out the Reynolds number I have used the density and dyn. viscosity from previous questions (860kgm & 0.032)
Re=0.9*0.12*860/0.032=2902.5

To work out the head loss I have used these density and dyn. Viscosity figures again and worked out from the diagram that (from the pump) the length of pipe is 27M.
So Hf=32*0.032*27*0.9/860*9.81*0.12^2=0.205M

So head loss due to friction is 0.205M.

I am not sure if I should use these assumptions i.e density and viscosity that are not given in the question. Am I on the right track or away on a crazy tangent??!

Any help would be much appreciated – thank you in advance.

Cheers
 

Attachments

Physics news on Phys.org
You're on the right track, but you used the pressure drop equation for laminar flow, and the flow is turbulent (for the viscosity and density you assumed).
 
Thanks for your comment Chestermiller much appreciated.

So I have now used the following Darcy equation for turbulent flow
Hf=4LCfUm^2/2gd

(Cf obtained from Moody diagram)

So = 4*27*0.004*0.9^2 / 2*9.81*0.12
Hf=0.143m of fluid.

Is this the correct method??

Cheers.
 
Moranovich said:
Thanks for your comment Chestermiller much appreciated.

So I have now used the following Darcy equation for turbulent flow
Hf=4LCfUm^2/2gd

(Cf obtained from Moody diagram)

So = 4*27*0.004*0.9^2 / 2*9.81*0.12
Hf=0.143m of fluid.

Is this the correct method??

Cheers.
Yes. This looks right. (But, I haven't checked your arithmetic)
 
Hi there,

I am looking to understand the methods used in questions c) and d)

Can you provide any insight into how i can answer a question similar to these
 
Why is the mean velocity roughly half of the maximum velocity? Does this apply to laminar/turbulent/transitional flows?

Thanks in advanced
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
5K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
4K
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
5K
Replies
6
Views
6K