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I completed 4a successfully, and with 4b, i have 2 queries:
a)why can't I let Reynolds # equal to 2.19 x 10^5 (from part a) then simply sub v=4 instead of 5m/s and rearrange for viscosity? I tried it this way first and got a very wrong answer. Why do we, essentially, need to work backwards to get the dynamic viscosity?
b)How do they find the reynolds number from the drag constant? I know they used the table but how?
Below is proof of my workings, and i have screen shotted the question and the answer workings as well.
Relevant equations are
F (drag)= drag constant (Cd) x pi/4 x d^2 x density fluid x velocity^2 x 1/2
Reynolds number= (density of fluid x diameter of spehere x velocity)/viscosity
F (drag) = Weight Buoyancy
= pi/6 x d^3 x gravity x (density of spheredensity of fluid)
kinematic viscosity= dynamic viscoity/ density
a)why can't I let Reynolds # equal to 2.19 x 10^5 (from part a) then simply sub v=4 instead of 5m/s and rearrange for viscosity? I tried it this way first and got a very wrong answer. Why do we, essentially, need to work backwards to get the dynamic viscosity?
b)How do they find the reynolds number from the drag constant? I know they used the table but how?
Below is proof of my workings, and i have screen shotted the question and the answer workings as well.
Relevant equations are
F (drag)= drag constant (Cd) x pi/4 x d^2 x density fluid x velocity^2 x 1/2
Reynolds number= (density of fluid x diameter of spehere x velocity)/viscosity
F (drag) = Weight Buoyancy
= pi/6 x d^3 x gravity x (density of spheredensity of fluid)
kinematic viscosity= dynamic viscoity/ density
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