I understand that if we apply a force on the axis of rotation of a spinning disc, the torque is in a different direction, and the axis is moved in a direction perpendicular to the direction in which the force upon the axis was applied, determined by the right-hand rule. But what if the force was applied directly on the disc? e.g. we have a functional gyroscope, and we apply a force (effectively a torque) on the disc, say, by blowing down on one half of the spinning wheel. What happens then? Would we still get gyroscopic precession or will the axis of rotation simply move in the direction in which we are blowing? Thanks!